Digital image analysis of Ki67 hotspot detection and index counting in gastroenteropancreatic neuroendocrine neoplasms.

The Ki-67 proliferative index plays a pivotal role in the subclassification of neuroendocrine neoplasm (NEN) according to the WHO Classification of Digestive System Tumors (5th edition), which designates neuroendocrine tumor (NET) grades 1, 2, and 3 for Ki-67 proliferative index of <3 %, 3-20 %, and >20 %, respectively. Proliferative index calculation must be performed in the hotspot, traditionally selected by visual scanning at low-power magnification. Recently, gradient map visualization has emerged as a tool for various purposes, including hotspot selection. This study includes 97 cases of gastrointestinal neuroendocrine neoplasms, with hotspots selected by bare eye and gradient map visualization (GM). Each hotspot was analyzed using three methods: eye estimation (EE), digital image analysis (DIA), and manual counting. Of the NENs studied, 91 % were NETs (26 % for G1, 55 % for G2, and 10 % for G3). Only 9 cases were neuroendocrine carcinoma (NEC). Between two hotspot selection methods, GM resulted in a higher grade in 14.77 % of cases, primarily upgrading from NET G1 to G2. Among the counting methods, DIA demonstrated substantial agreement with manual counting, both for pathologist and resident. Grading by other methods tended to result in a higher grade than MC (26.99 % with EE and 8.52 % with DIA). Given its clinical and statistical significance, this study advocates for the application of GM in hotspot selection to identify higher-grade tumors. Furthermore, DIA provides accurate grading, offering time efficiency over MC.

High-throughput detection of parasites and ova in stool using the fully automatic digital feces analyzer, orienter model fa280.

BACKGROUND: Intestinal parasitic infections can harm health by causing malnutrition, anemia, impaired growth and cognitive development, and alterations in microbiota composition and immune responses. Therefore, it is crucial to examine stool samples to diagnose parasitic infections. However, the traditional microscopic detection method is time-consuming, labor-intensive, and dependent on the expertise and training of microscopists. Hence, there is a need for a low-complexity, high-throughput, and cost-effective alternative to labor-intensive microscopic examinations. METHODS: This study aimed to compare the performance of a fully automatic digital feces analyzer, Orienter Model FA280 (People's Republic of China) with that of the formalin-ethyl acetate concentration technique (FECT). We assessed and compared the agreement between the FA280 and the FECT for parasite detection and species identification in stool samples. The first part of the study analyzed 200 fresh stool samples for parasite detection using the FECT and FA280. With the FA280, the automatic feces analyzer performed the testing, and the digital microscope images were uploaded and automatically evaluated using an artificial intelligence (AI) program. Additionally, a skilled medical technologist conducted a user audit of the FA280 findings. The second set of samples comprised 800 preserved stool samples (preserved in 10% formalin). These samples were examined for parasites using the FECT and FA280 with a user audit. RESULTS: For the first set of stool samples, there was no statistically significant difference in the pairwise agreements between the FECT and the FA280 with a user audit (exact binomial test, P = 1). However, there were statistically significant differences between the pairwise agreements for the FECT and the FA280 with the AI report (McNemar's test, P < 0.001). The agreement for the species identification of parasites between the FA280 with AI report and FECT showed fair agreement (overall agreement = 75.5%, kappa [κ] = 0.367, 95% CI 0.248-0.486). On the other hand, the user audit for the FA280 and FECT showed perfect agreement (overall agreement = 100%, κ = 1.00, 95% CI 1.00-1.00). For the second set of samples, the FECT detected significantly more positive samples for parasites than the FA280 with a user audit (McNemar's test, P < 0.001). The disparity in results may be attributed to the FECT using significantly larger stool samples than those used by the FA280. The larger sample size used by the FECT potentially contributed to the higher parasite detection rate. Regarding species identification, there was strong agreement between the FECT and the FA280 with a user audit for helminths (κ = 0.857, 95% CI 0.82-0.894). Similarly, there was perfect agreement for the species identification of protozoa between the FECT and the FA280 with user audit (κ = 1.00, 95% CI 1.00-1.00). CONCLUSIONS: Although the FA280 has advantages in terms of simplicity, shorter performance time, and reduced contamination in the laboratory, there are some limitations to consider. These include a higher cost per sample testing and a lower sensitivity compared to the FECT. However, the FA280 enables rapid, convenient, and safe stool examination of parasitic infections.

An Epidemiological Survey of Intestinal Parasitic Infection and the Socioeconomic Status of the Ethnic Minority People of Moken and Orang Laut.

Ethnic minority groups are often subjected to exclusion, social and healthcare marginalization, and poverty. There appears to be important linkages between ethnic minority groups, poor socioeconomic status, and a high prevalence of parasitic infection. Data regarding the prevalence and health effects of IPIs are necessary in the development and implementation of targeted prevention and control strategies to eradicate intestinal parasitic infection in the high-risk population. Thus, we investigated for the first time the intestinal parasitic infection status (IPIs), the socioeconomic status, and sanitary condition in the communities of Moken and Orang Laut, the ethnic minority peoples living on the coast of southwest Thailand. A total of 691 participants participated in the present study. The information concerning socioeconomic status and sanitary condition of the study population was obtained by personal interviews using a picture questionnaire. Stool samples were collected and examined for intestinal parasitic infection using direct wet smear and formalin-ethyl acetate concentration techniques. The results revealed that 62% of the study population were infected with one or more types of intestinal parasites. The highest prevalence of intestinal parasitic infections was found in the 11-20-year-old age range group. A statistically significant difference of IPIs among the three communities were observed (p < 0.0001). There was a statistical difference concerning 44 multiple infections of soil-transmitted helminths (STHs) (p < 0.001), whereas no statistically significant difference in multiple infections of protozoa was observed (p > 0.55). The results also displayed the significant difference in socioeconomic status and sanitary condition among the Moken living in Ranong and Phang Nga and the Orang Laut living in the Satun province (p < 0.001). Our study found no direct association between parasitic infection status and ethnic/geographic features; however, socioeconomic status is the key factor associated with prevalence of intestinal parasitic infection, with the observation that the higher prevalence of IPIs is due to a low socioeconomic status, consequently leading to poor hygiene and sanitation practices. The picture questionnaire played a major role in information gathering, especially from those of low or no education. Lastly, data pertaining to the species of the parasites and the mode of transmission assisted in the identification of group-specific vulnerabilities and shortcomings that can be utilized in education and corrected to reduce the prevalence of infection in the study areas.

Mid-Term Outcomes of Chimney Endovascular Aortic Aneurysm Repair: A Systematic Review and Meta-analysis.

BACKGROUND: To provide an overview of the literature on the mid-term outcomes of chimney EVAR (ChEVAR) for the treatment of juxtarenal abdominal aortic aneurysms (JAAA). METHODS: Different electronic databases were searched for published articles up to January 2020. The eligibility criteria were studies describing mid- or long-term outcomes of chimney EVAR (mean follow-up at least 1 year) for treatment of JAAA, including more than 10 cases, published in English, and with full text available. The outcomes measure were overall survival rate, target vessel patency, and freedom from reintervention at 3 years. Quality of the included studies was analyzed using the MINORS criteria. Pooled effect estimates were analyzed using random-effect models and heterogeneity was tested using I2 statistics. RESULTS: Thirteen articles met the inclusion criteria. The included studies described 1,019 patients. According to the quality assessment, methodological quality was moderate to poor. The pooled overall survival, freedom from reintervention, and target vessel patency at 3 year was 81.4 % (95%CI 73.8-87.9), 85.7% (95%CI 75.6-93.5), and 95.1% (95%CI 89.3-98.7) respectively. CONCLUSIONS: The results of this review show good to acceptable short and mid-term survival and good mid-term durability, which supports that ChEVAR as a suitable alternative in high-risk JAAA. However, proper patient selection for ChEVAR seems essential to attain good mid-term outcomes, and further large prospective and good quality studies are required to demonstrate its long-term results and enable conclusions on specific determinants for outcome.

Ivermectin Accelerates Circulating Nonstructural Protein 1 (NS1) Clearance in Adult Dengue Patients: A Combined Phase 2/3 Randomized Double-blinded Placebo Controlled Trial.

BACKGROUND: Dengue is the most significant mosquito-borne viral disease; there are no specific therapeutics. The antiparasitic drug ivermectin efficiently inhibits the replication of all 4 dengue virus serotypes in vitro. METHODS: We conducted 2 consecutive randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled trials in adult dengue patients to evaluate safety and virological and clinical efficacies of ivermectin. After a phase 2 trial with 2 or 3 days of 1 daily dose of 400 µg/kg ivermectin, we continued with a phase 3, placebo-controlled trial with 3 days of 400 µg/kg ivermectin. RESULTS: The phase 2 trial showed a trend in reduction of plasma nonstructural protein 1 (NS1) clearance time in the 3-day ivermectin group compared with placebo. Combining phase 2 and 3 trials, 203 patients were included in the intention to treat analysis (100 and 103 patients receiving ivermectin and placebo, respectively). Dengue hemorrhagic fever occurred in 24 (24.0%) of ivermectin-treated patients and 32 (31.1%) patients receiving placebo (P = .260). The median (95% confidence interval [CI]) clearance time of NS1 antigenemia was shorter in the ivermectin group (71.5 [95% CI 59.9-84.0] hours vs 95.8 [95% CI 83.9-120.0] hours, P = .014). At discharge, 72.0% and 47.6% of patients in the ivermectin and placebo groups, respectively had undetectable plasma NS1 (P = .001). There were no differences in the viremia clearance time and incidence of adverse events between the 2 groups. CONCLUSIONS: A 3-day 1 daily dose of 400 µg/kg oral ivermectin was safe and accelerated NS1 antigenemia clearance in dengue patients. However, clinical efficacy of ivermectin was not observed at this dosage regimen.

Factors Predicting the Response to Cyclosporin Treatment in Patients With Chronic Spontaneous Urticaria: A Systematic Review.

PURPOSE: This study aimed to systemically review literature relating to factors that could potentially predict a favorable response to cyclosporine A (CsA) treatment for chronic spontaneous urticaria (CSU). METHODS: A systematic literature review was done according to Preferred Reporting Items for Systematic Reviews and Meta-Analysis recommendations. RESULTS: A total of 13 studies (404 patients with CSU and 200 healthy patients) were included. There were only 1 randomized controlled trial (RCT) and 12 non-RCTs. Our systematic review showed that positive autologous serum skin test results, positive baseline basophil histamine release assays, positive baseline basophil activation test responses, elevated baseline plasma D-dimer levels, elevated baseline serum interleukin (IL)-2, IL-5, and tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-α) levels, and low baseline serum IgE levels might assist in predicting favorable CsA responses in CSU patients. Decreased plasma D-dimer levels; and decreased serum IL-2, IL-5, and TNF-α levels were reported to be correlated with clinical improvement after CsA treatment. CONCLUSIONS: Since most positive results were from non-RCT articles and some data were still inconsistent, this systematic review identified no reliable practical biomarker for predicting CsA treatment response in patients with CSU. There were no positive predictors with good consistency and mechanical plausibility.

Treatments of cold urticaria: A systematic review.

BACKGROUND: Several treatment options for cold urticaria (ColdU) have been studied and reported, but systematic reviews and meta-analyses are limited. OBJECTIVES: We sought to meta-analyze and review the efficacy and safety of ColdU treatments. METHODS: We followed the Preferred Reporting Items for Systematic Reviews and Meta-Analyses (PRISMA) recommendations. Suitable reports were identified by searching PubMed, Scopus, and Web of Science. Our systematic review included 16 studies, 9 of which met the eligibility criteria for the meta-analysis. We analyzed the effects of treatments on critical temperature thresholds (CTTs) and critical stimulation time thresholds (CSTTs), as well as on rates of complete response and adverse events. RESULTS: Our pooled meta-analyses showed that nonsedating second-generation H1-antihistamines (nsAHs) are effective in the treatment of ColdU and that updosing of nsAHs significantly reduced CTTs relative to their own standard doses and placebos. In 4 studies involving CSTTs, updosing of nsAHs also resulted in significantly better CSTTs than their own standard doses or placebos. Omalizumab resulted in a marked reduction of CTTs in H1-antihistamine-resistant patients. Of 118 adverse events in 8 studies, standard-dose nsAHs, updosed nsAHs, and omalizumab produced lower numbers of adverse events than first-generation antihistamines. CONCLUSIONS: Our study showed that greater dosages of nsAHs were more effective than standard dosages in controlling ColdU symptoms. Increasing the dosages was not significantly associated with higher adverse event rates. Omalizumab at 150 and 300 mg every 4 weeks was shown to be effective for patients with ColdU refractory to antihistamines.

Altered profile of circulating microparticles in nonvalvular atrial fibrillation.

BACKGROUND: Nonvalvular atrial fibrillation (AF) is the most common cardiac arrhythmia, and it is associated with the prothrombotic state. Circulating microparticles (cMPs) are membrane vesicles that are shed from many cell types in response to cell activation and cell apoptosis. Several studies reported that cMPs may play a role in the hypercoagulable state that can be observed in patients with AF. The aim of this study was to determine the levels of total cMPs and characterize their cellular origins in AF patients. METHODS: Atotal of 66 AF patients and 33 healthy controls were enrolled. This study investigated total cMP levels and their cellular origin in AF patients using polychromatic flow cytometry. RESULTS: AF patients had significantly higher levels of total cMPs (median 36.38, interquartile range [IQR] 21.16-68.50 × 105 counts/mL vs median 15.21, IQR 9.91-30.86 × 105 counts/mL; P = 0.004), platelet-derived MPs (PMPs) (median 10.61, IQR 6.55-18.04 × 105 counts/mL vs median 7.83, IQR 4.44-10.26 × 10/mL; P = 0.009), and endothelial-derived MPs (EMPs CD31+ CD41-) (median 2.94, IQR 1.78-0.60 × 105 counts/mL vs median 1.16, IQR 0.71-2.30 × 105 counts/mL; P = 0.001) than healthy controls after adjusting for potential confounders. Phosphatidylserine positive MP (PS + MP) levels were similar compared between AF patients and healthy controls. CONCLUSION: The results of this study revealed a marked increase in total cMP levels, and evidence of elevated endothelial damage and platelet activation, as demonstrated by increased PMP and EMP levels, in AF patients. Additional study is needed to further elucidate the role of cMPs (PMPs and EMPs) in the pathophysiology of and the complications associated with AF.

Cyclosporine for Chronic Spontaneous Urticaria: A Meta-Analysis and Systematic Review.

BACKGROUND: Despite widely recommended usage of cyclosporine A (CsA) in chronic spontaneous urticaria (CSU), there is no meta-analysis concerning its efficacy and safety. OBJECTIVE: To meta-analyze and review the efficacy and safety of CsA in CSU. METHODS: Efficacy was assessed by the relative change in urticaria activity score at 4 weeks and response rates at 4, 8, and 12 weeks. Safety was assessed by analyzing the number of patients with 1 or more adverse event. RESULTS: Eighteen studies (909 participants) including 2 randomized controlled trials were included, with 125, 363, and 266 patients with CSU receiving very low (<2 mg/kg/d), low (from 2 to< 4 mg/kg/d), and moderate (4-5 mg/kg/d) doses of CsA, respectively. After 4 weeks, the mean relative change in urticaria activity score of CsA-treated patients was -17.89, whereas that of controls was -2.3. The overall response rate to CsA treatment with low to moderate doses at 4, 8, and 12 weeks was 54%, 66%, and 73%, respectively. No studies of very low-dose CsA evaluated response rates at 4, 8, and 12 weeks. Among patients treated with very low, low, and moderate doses of CsA, 6%, 23%, and 57% experienced 1 or more adverse event, respectively. CONCLUSIONS: Given the limited number and quality of studies, our results should be interpreted with caution. CsA is effective at low to moderate doses. Adverse events appear to be dose dependent and occur in more than half the patients treated with moderate doses of CsA. We suggest that the appropriate dosage of CsA for CSU may range from 1 to 5 mg/kg/d, and 3 mg/kg/d is a reasonable starting dose for most patients.

Squamous Cell Carcinoma In Situ Upstaged to Invasive Squamous Cell Carcinoma: A 5-Year, Single Institution Retrospective Review.

BACKGROUND: Shave biopsy may not be able to accurately distinguish squamous cell carcinoma in situ (SCCIS) from invasive squamous cell carcinoma (SCC). Information on the incidence of biopsy-proven SCCIS upstaged to SCC after a more complete histologic examination is limited. OBJECTIVE: To determine the incidence and clinical risk factors associated with upstaging the biopsy diagnosis of SCCIS into invasive SCC based on findings during Mohs micrographic surgery (MMS). METHODS: All MMS cases of SCCIS performed between March 2007 and February 2012 were identified, MMS operative notes were examined, and invasive dermal components were confirmed by the MMS slide review. Upstaged SCCIS was defined as biopsy-diagnosed SCCIS subsequently found to be an invasive SCC during MMS. RESULTS: From 566 cases with the preoperative diagnosis of SCCIS, 92 (16.3%) cases were SCCIS upstaged to SCC. Location of ears, nose, lips, and eyelids, preoperative diameter >10 mm, and biopsy report mentioning a transected base were significant predictors of upstaged SCCIS. CONCLUSION: Considering the possibility that over 16% of SCCIS may be truly invasive SCC, biopsy-proven SCCIS should be treated adequately with margin-assessed treatment modalities such as surgical excision or Mohs surgery when indicated.

Oncologic Outcomes of Stage IVB or Persistent or Recurrent Cervical Carcinoma Patients Treated With Chemotherapy at Siriraj Hospital: Thailand's Largest Tertiary Referral Center.

OBJECTIVES: To determine response rate and survival outcomes of chemotherapeutic treatment in stage IVB, persistent, or recurrent cervical carcinoma patients. METHODS: Medical records of stage IVB or persistent or recurrent cervical carcinoma patients who received chemotherapy from January 2006 to December 2013 were retrospectively reviewed. Patients with neuroendocrine carcinoma and patients who received only 1 cycle of chemotherapy were excluded. The demographic data, tumor characteristics, chemotherapeutic agents, and response rate were reported. Factors associated with overall response rate from the first-round chemotherapeutic treatment were analyzed using χ test. Kaplan-Meier method and Cox proportional hazards model were used for survival analysis. RESULTS: Of 286 cervical carcinoma patients, 47 patients had stage IVB and 239 patients had persistent or recurrent disease. One hundred sixty-nine patients (59.1%) had squamous cell carcinoma (SCC). A majority of disease sites (38.8%) had both local and distant metastases. Overall response rate for first-round chemotherapeutic treatment was 37.8%, with 23.1% of patients having a complete response and 14.7% of patients having a partial response. Regarding disease response, 32.2% of patients had stable disease and 30% had disease progression. Median overall survival (OS) and progression-free survival (PFS) for first-round chemotherapeutic treatment were 11.6 (range, 0.7-108.3) months and 5.6 (range, 0.7-102.2) months, respectively. Patients with distant metastasis had a shorter OS duration with an adjusted hazard ratio (HR) of 1.78, 95% confidence interval (CI) of 1.09 to 2.90; P = 0.02. Patients with a body mass index of 25 kg/m or more had a longer PFS duration than those with a normal body mass index (adjusted HR, 0.72; 95% CI, 0.55-0.94; P = 0.018). Patients with non-SCC had a longer PFS duration than that of patients with SCC (adjusted HR, 0.77; 95% CI, 0.60-0.99; P = 0.041). CONCLUSIONS: Response rates, median PFS, and median OS of cervical cancer patients treated by chemotherapy in our center were rather high when compared with those of previous gynecologic oncology group studies.

Delayed Therapeutic Response Time Predicts Renal Damage in the First Episode of Febrile Urinary Tract Infection.

Objective: To evaluate the relationship of therapeutic delay time (TDT) and therapeutic response time (TRT) with renal damage in the first episode of febrile urinary tract infection (UTI). Material and Method: A prospective study was conducted in 67 children with the first episode of UTI at the Department of Pediatrics, Faculty of Medicine Siriraj Hospital between 2008 and 2010. To assess for renal damage, dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA) renal scintigraphy was performed at one and six months after the acute episode. Results: Abnormal DMSA renal scintigraphy was detected in 20 (29.9%) patients. There was no difference in TDT but TRT was different between the patients with normal and abnormal DMSA renal scintigraphy at p-value 0.001. The area under receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curve for TRT was 0.76 (95% confidence interval (CI) 0.64-0.86) at p-value 0.001. The optimal cut-off value for TRT was 22 hours with sensitivity 80.0% (56.3-94.1) and specificity 63.6% (47.8-77.6). In 50 patients with no vesicoureteral reflux (VUR), there was difference in TRT at p-value 0.002. The area under ROC curve for TRT was 0.82 (95% CI 0.69-0.96) at p-value 0.004. The optimal cut-off value for TRT was 25 hours with sensitivity 88.9% (95% CI 51.7-98.2) and specificity 68.4% (95% CI 51.3- 82.5). Conclusion: TRT at or more than 22 hours predicts renal damage after first episode of UTI. In patients with no VUR, TRT at or more than 25 hours predicts renal damage. DMSA renal scintigraphy in the first episode of UTI should be considered in these patients.

Effects of cytochrome P450 2C19 and paraoxonase 1 polymorphisms on antiplatelet response to clopidogrel therapy in patients with coronary artery disease.

Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet prodrug that is recommended to reduce the risk of recurrent thrombosis in coronary artery disease (CAD) patients. Paraoxonase 1 (PON1) is suggested to be a rate-limiting enzyme in the conversion of 2-oxo-clopidogrel to active thiol metabolite with inconsistent results. Here, we sought to determine the associations of CYP2C19 and PON1 gene polymorphisms with clopidogrel response and their role in ADP-induced platelet aggregation. Clopidogrel response and platelet aggregation were determined using Multiplate aggregometer in 211 patients with established CAD who received 75 mg clopidogrel and 75-325 mg aspirin daily for at least 14 days. Polymorphisms in CYP2C19 and PON1 were genotyped and tested for association with clopidogrel resistance. Linkage disequilibrium (LD) and their epistatic interaction effects on ADP-induced platelet aggregation were analysed. The prevalence of clopidogrel resistance in this population was approximately 33.2% (n = 70). The frequencies of CYP2C19*2 and *3 were significantly higher in non-responder than those in responders. After adjusting for established risk factors, CYP2C19*2 and *3 alleles independently increased the risk of clopidogrel resistance with adjusted ORs 2.94 (95%CI, 1.65-5.26; p<0.001) and 11.26 (95%CI, 2.47-51.41; p = 0.002, respectively). Patients with *2 or *3 allele and combined with smoking, diabetes and increased platelet count had markedly increased risk of clopidogrel resistance. No association was observed between PON1 Q192R and clopidogrel resistance (adjusted OR = 1.13, 95%CI, 0.70-1.82; p = 0.622). Significantly higher platelet aggregation values were found in CYP2C19*2 and *3 patients when compared with *1/*1 allele carriers (p = 1.98 × 10(-6)). For PON1 Q192R genotypes, aggregation values were similar across all genotype groups (p = 0.359). There was no evidence of gene-gene interaction or LD between CYP2C19 and PON1 polymorphisms on ADP-induced platelet aggregation. Our findings indicated that only CYP2C19*2 and *3 alleles had an influence on clopidogrel resistance. The risk of clopidogrel resistance increased further with smoking, diabetes, and increased platelet count.

Comparison of self-reported professional competency across pharmacy education programs: a survey of Thai pharmacy graduates enrolled in the public service program.

INTRODUCTION: Thai pharmacy education consists of two undergraduate programs, a 5-year Bachelor of Science in Pharmacy (BScPsci and BScPcare) degree and a 6-year Doctor of Pharmacy (Pharm D). Pharmacy students who wish to serve in the public sector need to enroll in the public service program. This study aims to compare the perception of professional competency among new pharmacy graduates from the three different pharmacy programs available in 2013 who enrolled in the public service program. METHODS: A cross-sectional survey was conducted among new pharmacy graduates in 2013 using a self-administered, structured, close-ended questionnaire. The questionnaire consisted of respondents' characteristics and perception of professional competencies. The competency questions consisted of 13 items with a 5-point scale. Data collection was conducted during Thailand's annual health professional meeting on April 2, 2013 for workplace selection of pharmacy graduates. RESULTS: A total of 266 new pharmacy graduates responded to the questionnaire (response rate 49.6%). There were no significant differences in sex and admission modes across the three pharmacy programs. Pharm D graduates reported highest competency in acute care services, medication reconciliation services, and primary care services among the other two programs. BScPsci graduates reported more competence in consumer health protection and herbal and alternative medicines than BScPcare graduates. There were significant differences in three competency domains: patient care, consumer protection and community health services, and drug review and information, but no significant differences in the health administration and communication domain among three pharmacy programs. CONCLUSION: Despite a complete change into a 6-year Pharm D program in 2014, pharmacy education in Thailand should continue evolving to be responsive to the needs of the health system. An annual survey of new pharmacy graduates should be continued, to monitor changes of professional competency across different program tracks and other factors which may influence their contribution to the health service system. Likewise, a longitudinal monitoring of their competencies in the graduate cohort should be conducted.

Total IgE, mosquito saliva specific IgE and CD4+ count in HIV-infected patients with and without pruritic papular eruptions.

BACKGROUND: Pruritic Papular Eruption (PPE) is a skin disorders found in HIV infected patients. However, the exact etiology of PPE is not documented. It has been suggested that PPE might result from arthropod bites. OBJECTIVE: The aim of this study was to investigate those factors in the HIV patient contributing to the occurrence of PPE, including specific IgE against mosquito saliva allergens, total IgE, CD4 cell counts and their associations. METHODS: Specific IgE against saliva allergens of Cx. quinquefasciatus mosquito was measured in 25 HIV patients with PPE and in 60 HIV without PPE by a time-resolved fluorescence immunoassay (TRIFA). The total IgE levels and CD4cell counts were also determined. RESULTS: Among the HIV patients with PPE, 84% (21/25) had CD4 cell counts less than 200 cells/µl in contrast to 30% (18/60) of the HIV without PPE patients. These differences were statistically significant (p =0.0005, χ2 test). The total IgE scores for the HIV patients with PPE were significantly higher than for those without PPE. A comparison of the mean arbitrary scores of the specific IgE in HIV patients, with and without PPE, was non-significant (p = 0.152). However, 44% (11/25) of the HIV patients with PPE had an arbitrary score above the mean score of mosquito bite allergic subjects, as compared to only 3.3% (2/60) of HIV patients without PPE. CONCLUSIONS: It may be concluded that the etiology of PPE in the HIV patient may be heterogeneous or multi-causal with allergic responses to the mosquito saliva allergen being only partially responsible.

Reproductive health and quality of life of young Burmese refugees in Thailand.

BACKGROUND: Of the 140,000 Burmese* refugees living in camps in Thailand, 30% are youths aged 15-24. Health services in these camps do not specifically target young people and their problems and needs are poorly understood. This study aimed to assess their reproductive health issues and quality of life, and identifies appropriate service needs. METHODS: We used a stratified two-stage random sample questionnaire survey of 397 young people 15-24 years from 5,183 households, and 19 semi-structured qualitative interviews to assess and explore health and quality of life issues. RESULTS: The young people in the camps had very limited knowledge of reproductive health issues; only about one in five correctly answered at least one question on reproductive health. They were clear that they wanted more reproductive health education and services, to be provided by health workers rather than parents or teachers who were not able to give them the information they needed. Marital status was associated with sexual health knowledge; having relevant knowledge of reproductive health was up to six times higher in married compared to unmarried youth, after adjusting for socio-economic and demographic factors. Although condom use was considered important, in practice a large proportion of respondents felt too embarrassed to use them. There was a contradiction between moral views and actual behaviour; more than half believed they should remain virgins until marriage, while over half of the youth experienced sex before marriage. Two thirds of women were married before the age of 18, but two third felt they did not marry at the right age. Forced sex was considered acceptable by one in three youth. The youth considered their quality of life to be poor and limited due to confinement in the camps, the limited work opportunities, the aid dependency, the unclear future and the boredom and unhappiness they face. CONCLUSIONS: The long conflict in Myanmar and the resultant long stay in refugee camps over decades affect the wellbeing of these young people. Lack of sexual health education and relevant services, and their concerns for their future are particular problems, which need to be addressed. Issues of education, vocational training and job possibilities also need to be considered.*Burmese is used for all ethnic groups.

Familial clustering of non-nuclear autoantibodies and C3 and C4 complement components in systemic lupus erythematosus.

OBJECTIVE: To determine whether key features of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), namely, production of non-nuclear antibodies (anti-C1q and anticardiolipin antibodies [aCL]) and depletion of complement components C3 and C4, aggregate in families. In addition, we examined relationships between anti-C1q and C3 and C4 levels. METHODS: The study cohort comprised 1,037 predominantly white (82%) nuclear families in which at least 1 member had SLE. Associations of antibody measurements between probands and their unaffected siblings were examined using parametric and nonparametric analyses, along with associations between unaffected siblings and their parents. The heritability of anti-C1q, C3, and C4 was estimated, and interdependencies between these factors were examined in a regression model accounting for the family structure of the data set. RESULTS: We demonstrated associations between siblings for anti-C1q (odds ratio [OR] 3.74, 95% confidence interval [95% CI] 2.65, 5.28) and IgG and IgM aCL (OR 4.08, 95% CI 1.83, 5.13 and OR 2.06, 95% CI 1.46, 2.91, respectively) and, for anti-C1q, association between unaffected parents and their unaffected offspring (OR 4.34, 95% CI 2.16, 8.72). We also demonstrated significant heritability of anti-C1q, C3, and C4 (approximately 45%). Anti-C1q was negatively associated with C3 and C4 in SLE probands but not in their healthy relatives. CONCLUSION: Non-nuclear antibodies and C3 and C4 cluster within the families of SLE probands, suggesting that specific autoantibody formation is partly genetically determined, even if the total genetic effect in unaffected relatives is insufficient to cause disease. Anti-C1q antibodies accelerate C3 and C4 depletion in patients with SLE but have no effect in the absence of disease.

The relation of vesicoureteral reflux and renal scarring in childhood urinary tract infection.

OBJECTIVE: Assess the relation of age and sex in vesico ureteral reflux (VUR) and renal scarring and the relation of VUR and renal scarring in childhood urinary tract infection. MATERIAL AND METHOD: A descriptive study of one hundred and twenty-six children who received renal cortical scintigraphy from 1st Jan 2000 to 31st Dec 2004 in the Department of Radiology, Faculty of Medicine Siriraj Hospital, was conducted. Ninety-three (50 males, 43 females) patients were diagnosed with urinary tract infections (UTIs) but only ninety-one of them had renal cortical scintigraphic results available. The male to female ratio was 1.16:1. The mean age of the patients was 4.33 years (SD +/- 4.17, range 7 days-16 years). During the 1st year of life the male to female ratio is 2.6:1. Fever, dysuria, and poor feeding were the most presenting signs and symptoms. Eighty-five (45 males, 40 females) patients received Voiding Cysto Urethro Gram (VCUG). RESULT: The authors did not find the correlation between the age groups and sex with VCUG results on right and left side, respectively (p = 0.856, p = 0.145, p = 0.77, p = 0.75). Ninety-one (49 males, 42 females) patients received DMSA renal scintigraphy. Fifty-two patients (57.1%) had abnormal DMSA renal scan results. However; the authors did not find the correlation between age groups and sex with DMSA renal scan results on the right and left kidneys, respectively. (p = 0.202, p = 0.416, p = 0.511, p = 0.791). The authors compared times of UTIs with and DMSA renal scintigraphy in each side of the kidney. Even though the authors did find the correlation between episodes of UTIs and abnormal DMSA on the left kidneys (p = 0.017), it was not found on the right kidneys (p = 0.081). There were 80 patients who received both VCUG and DMSA renal scintigraphy. The authors found the correlation between severity of VUR and abnormal DMSA results on right and left kidneys (p = 0.001, p = 0.01). CONCLUSION: The authors recommend that all children who have repeated UTI and/or VUR, irrespective of age and sex, should receive DMSA renal scintigraphy to detect renal scarring and follow up future complications.