Impact of TNFalpha, LTalpha, Fc gammaRII and complement receptor on HIV-1 trapping in lymphoid tissue from HIV-infected patients.

OBJECTIVES: To investigate HIV trapping mechanisms in patients with acute infection and in asymptomatic individuals prior to and during antiretroviral therapy. To determine the role of complement receptor (CR), Fc gamma receptor II (Fc gammaRII), tumour necrosis factor alpha (TNFalpha), and lymphotoxin alpha (LTalpha) expression in HIV trapping efficiency. METHODS: Lymphoid tissues from three acutely HIV-infected patients and six asymptomatic, chronically HIV-infected patients collected prior to and during antiretroviral therapy were compared with lymphoid tissues from six HIV-seronegative subjects. HIV, TNFalpha and LTalpha RNA expression was detected and quantified by fluorescence in situ hybridization. CR, Fc gammaRII and HIV p24 antigen were detected and quantified by fluorescence immunohistochemistry. RESULTS: The amount of trapped HIV did not differ significantly between patients with acute HIV infection and asymptomatic individuals, and was independent of the presence of CR or Fc gammaRII expression. However, in patients with acute infection, the amount of trapped virus was correlated inversely with the number of HIV-infected cells (P = 0.0092) and with the size of the light zone (P = 0.037). In these patients, the number of TNFalpha-expressing cells was correlated inversely with the amount of trapped virus (P = 0.014) and positively correlated with the size of the light zone in germinal centers (P = 0.041). No correlations were observed between TNFalpha or LTalpha expression and Fc gammaRII or CR expression. CONCLUSION: This report provides the first evidence that in humans TNFalpha is involved in the development of lymphoid follicles, HIV trapping, and, consequently, in early host immune responses. A model is proposed for early events in patients during acute HIV infection.

Incomplete HIV-1 activation in latently infected U1 cells demonstrated by double in situ hybridization.

Triple combination antiretroviral therapy can reduce HIV-1 infection to a relatively small pool of latently infected cells. To eliminate this residual source of virus, new therapies designed to activate latently infected cells are currently being tested. We therefore investigated the kinetics of in vitro HIV-1 RNA induction using chronically infected U1 cells. A new two-probe fluorescence in situ hybridization (double ISH) method was devised to simultaneously assess total HIV-1 RNA (T-RNA) and unspliced HIV-1 RNA (U-RNA) expression in individual cells. Activation of the U1 cells resulted in increasing expression of T-RNA between 0 and 24 h with lagging expression of U-RNA between 6 and 30 h. Both the positive area per cell and the number of positive cells increased with time. Although activation induced 98.5% of the cells to express HIV-1 T-RNA by 24 h, 52% remained negative for U-RNA. In contrast, 100% of 8E5 cells, which constitutively express HIV-1, scored positive for U-RNA as well as T-RNA with the double ISH. This study provides, for the first time, a semiquantitative cell-by-cell analysis of HIV-1 mRNA subsets in latently infected cells. Our results establish the advantages of using double fluorescence ISH to study gene expression and demonstrate that chronically infected U1 cells remain in a partially induced state despite potent activation.

Effects of early antiretroviral treatment on HIV-1 RNA in blood and lymphoid tissue: a randomized trial of double versus triple therapy. Swiss HIV Cohort Study.

To assess the effects of early initiation of antiretroviral therapy on cell-free and cell-associated viral load in blood and lymphoid tissue, we performed a randomized, open-label, multicenter trial comparing a double (zidovudine + lamivudine) and triple (zidovudine + lamivudine + ritonavir) drug combination in treatment-naive, asymptomatic patients with CD4 counts >400 cells/microl. HIV-1 RNA was measured in plasma, peripheral blood mononuclear cells, and sequential tonsil or lymph node biopsies (27 patients); the study follow-up was 2 years. Among 42 randomized patients, the proportion with plasma HIV-1 RNA <50 copies/ml was 16% and 74% at week 24 (p<.001) in those randomized to double and triple therapy, respectively, necessitating frequent treatment intensification in the double arm. After a rapid decline within 4 weeks in both arms, cell-associated HIV-1 RNA decreased further only in those patients with sustained suppression of plasma viral load, but remained almost always detectable at low levels, indicating persisting transcription of viral RNA. CD4 counts increased by 200 to 250 cells/microl at week 96 in both arms without significant differences (intent-to-treat analyses). Thus, even if treatment is initiated early in asymptomatic patients with preserved CD4 counts, three drugs are necessary to achieve sustained decreases of HIV load in blood and lymphoid tissue.

PCR-derived ssDNA probes for fluorescent in situ hybridization to HIV-1 RNA.

We developed a simple and rapid technique to synthesize single-stranded DNA (ssDNA) probes for fluorescent in situ hybridization (ISH) to human immunodeficiency virus 1 (HIV-1) RNA. The target HIV-1 regions were amplified by the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) and were simultaneously labeled with dUTP. This product served as template for an optimized asymmetric PCR (one-primer PCR) that incorporated digoxigenin (dig)-labeled dUTP. The input DNA was subsequently digested by uracil DNA glycosylase, leaving intact, single-stranded, digoxigenin-labeled DNA probe. A cocktail of ssDNA probes representing 55% of the HIV-1 genome was hybridized to HIV-1-infected 8E5 T-cells and uninfected H9 T-cells. For comparison, parallel hybridizations were done with a plasmid-derived RNA probe mix covering 85% of the genome and a PCR-derived RNA probe mix covering 63% of the genome. All three probe types produced bright signals, but the best signal-to-noise ratios and the highest sensitivities were obtained with the ssDNA probe. In addition, the ssDNA probe syntheses generated large amounts of probe (0.5 to 1 microg ssDNA probe per synthesis) and were easier to perform than the RNA probe syntheses. These results suggest that ssDNA probes may be preferable to RNA probes for fluorescent ISH. (J Histochem Cytochem 48:285-293, 2000)

Tailed RT-PCR for the Quantitation of Chloramphenicol Acetyl Transferase (CAT)mRNA.

Reporter gene plasmids have been used extensively to monitor gene expression and elucidate intracellular pathways (1-4). They have been particularly useful in understanding the architecture of promoter regions and the interactions between promoter elements and cellular or viral regulatory factors (5-9). The conventional strategy has been to transfect host cells transiently with a plasmid bearing the sequences of interest linked to a chloramphenicol acetyl transferase (CAT) reporter gene. Subsequently, CAT activity is measured as a readout by thin-layer chromatography (TLC) or the levels of CAT protein are determined using an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA). However, most transfections-whether stable or transient-result in low levels of CAT gene expression, as long as no activation signal is provided (10-12). Although this is an ideal situation to study gene activation pathways, it is poorly suited to monitor gene repression or negative regulatory mechanisms. To overcome this problem, investigators use cell-activating agents, such as phorbolester and phytohemagglutinin, or transfect a second plasmid expressing a transactivator (e.g., viral transactivator). However, use of such agents might interfere with the pathway(s) being studied and could provide erroneous results. Also, current assays such as TLC or CAT ELISA are often not able to quantitate such low levels of expression, thus hampering studies aimed at dissecting the down modulation of gene expression (13-15).

Analysis of a biallelic polymorphism in the tumor necrosis factor alpha promoter and HIV type 1 disease progression.

The relevance of a TNF-alpha promoter polymorphism, a G-to-A polymorphic sequence at position-308, was examined to test whether variant alleles of TNF-alpha affect susceptibility to infection with HIV-1 and progression to AIDS. Analysis of specimens from cohorts of HIV-1 positive homosexual men demonstrated that 3 of the 32 (9.4%) HIV-1-infected long-term nonprogressors (LTNPs) were homozygous for the uncommon TNF-2 allele compared with 3 of the 196 (1.5%) HIV-1-seronegative blood donors and uninfected homosexual men (p < 0.05). There was no difference in heterozygosity among HIV-1-seropositive or -seronegative groups, although some of the seropositive men heterozygous for the TNF2 genotype were also heterozygous for CCR5delta32. However, no significant association was found between TNF genotypes and time of survival, CD4 slopes, or viral loads when seroincident (n = 109) and seroprevalent cases (n = 442) from the Chicago MACS were analyzed. Functional analysis of lymphocytes from the seronegative group revealed no difference in endogenous or mitogen-induced TNF-alpha production, as well as susceptibility to in vitro HIV-1 infection between different TNF-genotype donors. These data suggest that TNF genotypes do not play a direct role in HIV-1 disease progression; however, they could potentially be part of a multigenic linkage that may be involved in delaying progression to AIDS.

Enhanced specificity of truncated transmembrane protein for serologic confirmation of human T-cell lymphotropic virus type 1 (HTLV-1) and HTLV-2 infections by western blot (immunoblot) assay containing recombinant envelope glycoproteins.

Immunoassays based on the highly immunogenic transmembrane protein of human T-cell lymphotropic virus type 1 (HTLV-1) (protein 21c) are capable of detecting antibodies in all individuals infected with HTLV-1 and HTLV-2. However, because of antigenic mimicry with other cellular and viral proteins, such assays also have a large proportion of false-positive reactions. We have recently identified an immunodominant epitope, designated GD21-I located within amino acids 361 to 404 of the transmembrane protein, that appears to eliminate such false positivity. This recombinant GD21-I protein was used in conjunction with additional recombinant HTLV type-specific proteins and a whole virus lysate to develop a modified Western blot (immunoblot) assay (HTLV WB 2.4). The sensitivity and specificity of this assay were evaluated with 352 specimens whose infection status was determined by PCR assay for the presence or absence of HTLV-1/2 proviral sequences. All HTLV-1-positive (n = 102) and HTLV-2-positive (n = 107) specimens reacted with GD21-1 in the HTLV WB 2.4 assay, yielding a test sensitivity of 100%. Furthermore, all specimens derived from individuals infected with different viral subtypes of HTLV-1 (Cosmopolitan, Japanese, and Melanesian) and HTLV-2 (IIa0, a3, a4, IIb1, b4, and b5) reacted with GD21-I in the HTLV WB 2.4 assay. More importantly, HTLV WB 2.4 analysis of 81 PCR-negative specimens, all of which reacted to recombinant protein 21e in the presence or absence of p24 and p19 reactivity in the standard WB assay, showed that only two specimens retained reactivity to GD21-I, yielding an improved test specificity for the transmembrane protein of 97.5%. None of 41 specimens with gag reactivity only or 21 HTLV-negative specimens demonstrated reactivity to GD21-I. In an analysis of additional specimens (n = 169) from different geographic areas for which PCR results were not available, a substantial increase in the specificity of GD21-I detection was demonstrated, with no effect on the sensitivity of GD21-I detection among specimens from seropositive donors. Thus, the highly sensitive, GD21-I-based HTLV WB 2.4 assay eliminates the majority of false-positive transmembrane results, thereby increasing the specificity for serologic confirmation of HTLV-1 and HTLV-2 infections.

Development of a novel quantitative assay for the measurement of chloramphenicol acetyl transferase (CAT) mRNA.

Most host cells transfected with chloramphenicol acetyl transferase (CAT) expressing plasmids display relatively low levels of constitutive CAT activity. While this is ideal to study factors that enhance gene transcription, decreases in CAT levels are difficult to quantitate, using conventional CAT assays. Thus, investigators have used cell activating agents or co-transfection of the cell lines with a second enhancer plasmid to yield higher levels of CAT activity. However, such measures can interfere with the cellular pathways studied and eventually alter the results. To avoid this problem, our laboratory has designed an RT-PCR assay to quantitate CAT mRNA. The ability of this assay to detect CAT mRNA but not CAT DNA demonstrates its specificity and is achieved using a tailed oligoprimer for the reverse transcription step. This assay is able to measure the equivalent of as few as eight copies of CAT mRNA, is reproducible and relatively easy to perform. The quantitative capability of the assay relies on a constant production of CAT mRNA, which is achieved using permanently transfected and cloned cell lines bearing a defined number of CAT DNA copies per cell. This assay provides a tool for monitoring events at the transcriptional level and thereby complements the currently used CAT ELISA and thin-layer chromatography assays.

Biphasic in vitro regulation of retroviral replication by CD8+ cells from nonhuman primates.

CD8+ T cells from naturally infected disease-resistant sooty mangabeys (Cercocebus atys) secrete a soluble factor which inhibits the in vitro replication of the simian immunodeficiency virus (SIV). To gain further insight on the mechanism(s) involved, CD8+ effector T cells and target cells from sooty mangabeys were immortalized and cloned. The target cells were then stably transfected with an SIV-LTR-CAT construct or with the parental CAT plasmid as a control. A quantitative RT-PCR method, providing the necessary sensitivity, was developed to monitor the influence of the cloned CD8+ T cells on the CATmRNA contained in the target cells. It could be demonstrated that a soluble factor was secreted by the cloned CD8+ T cells from sooty mangabeys, which appeared to regulate CATmRNA activity in a dose-dependent and reversible manner. Kinetic experiments showed that the CATmRNA transcriptional activity was initially augmented at 30 min postcoculture and was followed by a marked decrease in transcriptional activity after a few hours. This immediate early response could be mitigated utilizing H7, Calmodulin, or PDTC (a pyrrolidone derivative of dithiocarbamate), suggesting that the pathway was protein kinase-dependent and that the NF-kappa B site may be involved. The inhibitory effect could also be overcome using a protein synthesis inhibitor, suggesting that protein synthesis was needed to negatively regulate CATmRNA activity and hence SIV promoter activity.

An ELISA for detection of antibodies against porcine epidemic diarrhoea virus (PEDV) based on the specific solubility of the viral surface glycoprotein.

Viral proteins of porcine epidemic diarrhoea virus (PEDV) were extracted from the cytoplasm of infected Vero cells using hypotonic conditions and a non-ionic detergent. Both the pH and the NaCl concentration of the extraction buffer were varied in attempts to increase the solubility of the virion spike glycoproteins (S-protein) and of the nucleocapsid proteins (N-protein). Monoclonal antibodies, hyperimmune sera and convalescent pig sera were used to identify and monitor these proteins by immunoprecipitation and Western blots. The solubility of the S-protein was optimal at pH 4, whereas that of the N-protein was optimal at pH 9. Consequently, it was possible to enrich for either S-protein or N-protein; increases in the NaCl concentration of the buffer were of no advantage in this respect. Enriched preparations of the S-protein and N-protein were used as ELISA antigen for the S-ELISA and N-ELISA, respectively. The S-ELISA proved to be the more effective of the two immunoassays. Antibodies against S-protein remained detectable for longer periods of time than anti-N-protein antibodies in the sera of PEDV-infected pigs. Using this ELISA of increased sensitivity, it was observed that only a small number of farms in Switzerland had been infected with PEDV.

Oxaprozin pharmacokinetics in patients with congestive heart failure.

12 patients aged 26-71 years with stable, compensated congestive heart failure (CHF) and 12 healthy controls matched for age, sex, height, weight, and serum albumin, received a 1200-mg oral dose of the nonsteroidal antiinflammatory agent 4,5-diphenyl-2-oxazolepropionic acid (oxaprozin). Serum oxaprozin levels were measured by high pressure liquid chromatography during the next 14 days. Oxaprozin elimination half-life was not different between controls and CHF patients (63 vs 69 h), but peak serum levels were lower (79 vs 63 micrograms/ml, p less than 0.01), apparent volume of distribution was larger (0.22 vs 0.29 l/kg, p less than 0.05) and clearance tended to be higher, although not significantly so, (0.042 vs 0.053 ml/min/kg) in CHF patients. These differences might have been due to reduced serum protein binding (increased free fraction) in CHF patients (0.25 vs 0.44% unbound, p less than 0.1). After correction for individual values of free fraction, groups did not differ in peak free oxaprozin serum levels (0.20 vs 0.26 micrograms/ml), unbound volume of distribution (92 vs 83 l/kg), or unbound clearance (17.5 vs 15.0 ml/min/kg). Thus protein binding of oxaprozin in the present study was reduced in CHF due either to the underlying disease or to the concurrent medications. This in turn caused reciprocal reduction in total (free plus bound) oxaprozin levels and elevated estimates of volume of distribution and clearance. Although protein binding is altered, CHF causes no significant alteration in distribution of free oxaprozin nor free clearance of oxaprozin, which is accomplished by a combination of oxidation and conjugation.

[Bullous phototoxic contact dermatitis caused by Dictamnus albus. The Bible's "burning bush"?]. / Bullöse phototoxische Kontaktdermatitis durch Dictamnus albus. "Brennender Busch" der Bibel?

A bullous phototoxic reaction occurred in a 27-year-old man working with the plant Dictamnus albus. The skin changes disappeared, leaving behind areas of hyperpigmentation, after treatment with corticoid-containing ointments. Possible causes are 5- and 8-methoxypsoralen, perhaps also photodynamically active alkaloids of the plant, as well as sun-ray exposure and sweating. Dictamnus albus may be the biblical "burning bush". Since the plant becoming ever more popular in German gardens, a phytophototoxic reaction should be considered in the differential diagnosis of the described symptoms.

[Osteonecrosis in acne conglobata]. / Knochennekrose bei Acne conglobata.

We report on a 17-year-old man suffering from acne conglobata, who developed osteomyelitis with osteonecrosis of the left clavicula after a rash of acne fulminans. The infection spread from a cystic nodule into the adjacent bone.

Effect of cirrhosis and renal failure on the kinetics of clotiazepam.

The kinetics of a single 5-mg oral dose of the thienodiazepine clotiazepam was evaluated in a series of patients with biopsy-proven cirrhosis, and in patients with renal insufficiency requiring maintenance hemodialysis, compared to healthy matched controls. Clotiazepam volume of distribution (Vz) was significantly smaller in cirrhotic patients than in controls (1.83 vs 2.57 l/kg), and total clearance was likewise reduced (2.15 vs 3.15 ml/min/kg). Elimination half-life was similar between groups (10.0 vs. 10.2 h). There were no significant differences between renal failure and control patients in clotiazepam Vz, oral clearance, or elimination half-life. Thus cirrhosis is associated with reduced clearance of clotiazepam, probably due to impairment of its microsomal oxidation. However clotiazepam disposition is not significantly altered in dialysis-dependent renal insufficiency patients.

Kinetics of diazepam, midazolam, and lorazepam in cigarette smokers.

Ten otherwise healthy cigarette smokers (mean, 31 cigarettes per day), and ten nonsmoking control volunteers matched for age, weight, and sex received single intravenous doses of diazepam (5 to 10 mg), midazolam (5 mg), and lorazepam (2 mg) on three separate occasions. Kinetics of each benzodiazepine were determined from multiple serum concentrations measured after each dose. In non-smoking vs smoking subjects, there was no significant difference in mean clearance of diazepam (0.44 vs 0.47 ml/min/kg), midazolam (9.6 vs 7.1 ml/min/kg), or lorazepam (0.96 vs 1.08 ml/min/kg). Thus, differences in pharmacokinetics are unlikely to account for altered sensitivity to benzodiazepines that may occur in cigarette smokers.

Evaluation of the hypothalamic-pituitary effects of digoxin.

Normally menstruating young female volunteers with no evidence of cardiovascular disease participated in a controlled study of digoxin effects on serum thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) and prolactin levels in the basal state and after stimulation with thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH). In the first study, subjects received oral digoxin, 0.5 mg daily, or matching placebo, on days 10 through 22 of a menstrual cycle, then crossed over to placebo or digoxin for days 10 through 22 of the next cycle. Basal serum TSH and prolactin on days 7 through 9 and 20 through 22 did not differ significantly between placebo and digoxin cycles. Levels of both hormones rose after a 200-micrograms intravenous dose of TRH given on days 8 and 21, but the response to TRH did not differ between placebo and digoxin cycles. In the second study, subjects received 0.5 mg intravenous digoxin daily for days 7 through 21 of a menstrual cycle. Basal serum TRH and prolactin did not change significantly in response to digoxin. The findings suggest that hormonal changes associated with digoxin therapy, if they exist, are more likely to reflect direct effects on the target organ rather than indirect effects on the hypothalamic-pituitary axis.

Pharmacokinetics and absolute bioavailability of diltiazem in humans.

Six healthy male volunteers received single doses of diltiazem hydrochloride on three occasions separated by at least 10 days. Modes of administration were: 10-minute intravenous infusion of a 20-mg dose; oral administration of 120 mg in solution form; and oral administration of 120 mg as two 60-mg sustained-release tablets. Diltiazem concentrations were measured by electron-capture gas chromatography in multiple plasma samples drawn during the 36 hours after dosage. Following intravenous administration, mean (+/- S.E.) pharmacokinetic variables were: elimination half-life, 11.2 (+/- 2.1) hours; volume of distribution, 11.1 (+/- 3.0) liters/kg; and total clearance, 11.5 (+/- 0.7) ml/min/kg. Oral diltiazem in solution form was rapidly absorbed, with peak plasma levels attained at 38 (+/- 6) minutes after the dose. Absolute systemic availability averaged 44% (+/- 4%). Oral administration of sustained-release tablets yielded, as predicted, slower absorption, with peak plasma concentrations attained at an average of 165 (+/- 22) minutes after dosage. Thus, oral diltiazem is incompletely bioavailable after oral administration, mainly because of first-pass hepatic extraction.

Differential effects of isoniazid and oral contraceptive steroids on antipyrine oxidation and acetaminophen conjugation.

Factors influencing hepatic oxidation of antipyrine and conjugation of acetaminophen were evaluated in volunteers who received 1.0 g of antipyrine intravenously and on a different occasion a 650 mg intravenous dose of acetaminophen. In study one, subjects received both drugs in the control state and at another time during coadministration of isoniazid (INH), 180 mg daily. In control versus INH conditions, mean clearance of antipyrine was reduced from 0.67 to 0.60 ml/min/kg as was clearance of acetaminophen from 4.97 to 4.23 ml/min/kg, but these differences were not statistically significant. In study two, females on low-dose estrogen oral contraceptives (OC) and drug-free controls matched for age received both drugs. Compared to controls, OC users had reduced total clearance of antipyrine (0.71 vs. 0.50 ml/min/kg; p less than 0.005) and prolonged antipyrine t1/2 (9.6 vs. 13.3 h; p less than 0.005). For acetaminophen, however, OC users had higher clearance (5.2 vs. 6.1 ml/min/kg) and shorter t1/2 (2.2 vs. 1.9 h) although differences did not attain statistical significance. Clearance of antipyrine and acetaminophen across both studies was not statistically significantly correlated within individuals (r = 0.22). The capacities for drug oxidation and conjugation appear to be controlled by different mechanisms.

Differential effect of isoniazid on triazolam oxidation and oxazepam conjugation.

Healthy volunteers received a single dose of triazolam (0.5 mg) or oxazepam (30 mg) on two occasions, once in the control state and again during coadministration of isoniazid (INH) base, 180 mg day. INH coadministration prolonged triazolam half-life (3.3 vs 2.5 h, P less than 0.05) and increased total area under the curve (38.6 vs 26.5 ng ml-1 h, P less than 0.01) consistent with a reduction of apparent oral clearance (3.9 vs 6.8 ml min-1 kg-1, 0.05 less than P less than 0.1). INH coadministration had no influence on the kinetics of oxazepam. INH impairs hepatic microsomal oxidation of triazolam, leading to reduced first-pass hepatic extraction as well as prolonged half-life. However INH had no influence on oxazepam conjugation.