Ultrasonographic findings in diabetic cheiroarthropathy: a pilot study.

OBJECTIVE: Diabetic cheiroarthropathy (DCA) is one of the musculoskeletal manifestations of diabetes mellitus. It is clinically diagnosed using the prayer and tabletop signs. The clinical appearance, however, mimics autoimmune-mediated polyarthritis of the hands and fingers. It is therefore crucial to positively identify DCA patients. METHOD: We used high-frequency B-mode ultrasound to investigate 14 patients with DCA and seven non-DCA diabetics with anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody-positive rheumatoid arthritis (RA). We recorded the frequency of synovitis in radiocarpal, metacarpophalangeal, and proximal interphalangeal joints, the presence of tenosynovitis of the finger flexor tendons, echogenicity of the synovia and the flexor tendon sheaths, and soft tissue alterations in the digits. We compared our findings between groups to determine sonographic characteristics of DCA. RESULTS: A low rate of small finger joint involvement in the presence of a high rate of finger flexor tendinopathy showed a high association with DCA in correlation (p = 0.002) and regression analysis (p < 0.001). Tendon sheaths were significantly more often hyperechoic and proliferative in DCA compared to RA (p = 0.008), and hypoechoic soft tissue alterations were almost exclusively seen in DCA patients (p = 0.003). Radiocarpal joint involvement and its echogenicity did not differ between groups. CONCLUSION: Ultrasonography shows typical features in DCA, and is capable of discriminating DCA from non-DCA patients with RA and diabetes.

Utility of serum complement factors C3 and C4 as biomarkers during therapeutic management of giant cell arteritis.

OBJECTIVE: There is a strong unmet need for biomarkers in giant cell arteritis (GCA), as C-reactive protein (CRP) may be unreliable in patients treated with Tocilizumab (TCZ). We aimed to assess whether C3 and C4 are useful biomarkers in GCA patients, particularly in those treated with TCZ. METHOD: We retrospectively enrolled all patients who underwent C3 and C4 measurement at baseline. All patients were evaluated at 3, 6, 12, and 24 months after diagnosis, as part of routine follow-up. Two assessments after the end of the observational period, in case of further relapses, were also included. RESULTS: At baseline, mean ± sd levels (mg/dL) of C3 (133 ± 28.99) and C4 (25.9 ± 9.04) were within normal ranges. During follow-up, C3 and C4 decreased in patients attaining remission (107.07 ± 19.86, p = 0.0006; 19.86 ± 10.27, p = 0.01, respectively) and sustained remission (95.85 ± 18.04, p = 0.001; 15.61 ± 9.75, p = 0.006). In TCZ-treated patients, even stronger decreases in C3 (83.11 ± 19.66, p = 0.001) and C4 (8.26 ± 3.83, p < 0.0001) were observed, and their values were not correlated with CRP or erythrocyte sedimentation rate. CONCLUSION: C3 and C4 do not seem useful in the diagnosis of GCA, as normal values do not rule out active vasculitis. However, C3 and C4 correlate with disease activity. As the low C4 levels found in TCZ-treated patients are not correlated with CRP, C4 should be evaluated as a potential biomarker of disease activity and treatment response.

[What are the indications for rescue procedures? : Systemic rheumatic diseases in the intensive care unit]. / Was sind die Indikationen für Rescue-Verfahren? : Rheumatische Systemerkrankungen auf der Intensivstation.

Severe, organ-threatening and life-threatening manifestations of inflammatory rheumatic diseases, such as diffuse alveolar hemorrhage in the context of small vessel vasculitis, sometimes inadequately respond to immunosuppressive treatment. In the case of an immanent or already occurring organ failure, immunosuppressive treatment may need to be supplemented with rapidly effective rescue treatment procedures. Due to the rarity of many rheumatic diseases, the evidence for the use of rescue treatment, such as plasmapheresis, extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) and the administration of intravenous immunoglobulins (IVIG), is relatively low for many indications. The use of plasmapheresis is considered useful in acute anti-glomerular basement membrane (GBM) disease (Goodpasture's syndrome) or catastrophic antiphospholipid antibody syndrome (APS). The use of ECMO treatment may be considered for persistent respiratory failure despite mechanical ventilation due to diffuse alveolar hemorrhage or acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Administration of IVIG is indicated for acute cardiac involvement in Kawasaki's disease and may be considered in catastrophic APS and refractory myositis.

Size matters: observations regarding the sonographic double contour sign in different joint sizes in acute gouty arthritis.

OBJECTIVE: In distinguishing urate arthritis (UA) from non-crystal-related arthritides, joint sonography including the detection of the double contour sign (DCS) and hypervascularization using power Doppler ultrasound (PDUS) is an important step in the diagnostic process. But are these sonographic features equally reliable in every accessible joint under real-life conditions? METHODS: We retrospectively analyzed 362 patients with acute arthritis and evaluated the DCS and the degree of PDUS hypervascularization in patients with gout and in those with arthritis other than urate arthritis (non-UA). We classified all joints into the groups small, medium, and large. Sensitivities, specificities, positive and negative predictive values (PPV/NPV), and a binary regression model were calculated. We also evaluated the influence of serum uric acid levels (SUA) on the presence of a DCS in each joint category. RESULTS: Sensitivity of the DCS in gout was 72.5% in the entire cohort, 66.0% in large, 78.8% in medium, and 72.3% in small joints. In wrist joints the DCS sensitivity maxed at 83.3%, with a specificity of 81.8%. The lowest rates of DCS sensitivity were found in gout patients with elbow joint involvement (42.9%). In all joints except metatarsophalangeal joint 1 (MTP-1), the incidence of a DCS increased by the increment of SUA levels above 7.5 mg/dl (p < 0.001). PDUS signals were most commonly found in medium and small joints and were only scarce in large joints, independent of the underlying diagnosis. CONCLUSIONS: In our study we detected different rates of accuracy regarding DCS and PDUS in patients with acute arthritis. The best results were seen in medium-size joints, especially wrists.

[Sarcoidosis : Renal manifestations]. / Sarkoidose : Renale Manifestationen.

Renal involvement in sarcoidosis is much more common than generally assumed from old epidemiological studies and is often only detected when actively searched for. Many patients with renal sarcoidosis present with no or only few symptoms. The diagnostic work-up of sarcoidosis should always include a possible renal involvement. In cases of impaired renal function, proteinuria or a pathological urine sediment, a renal biopsy specimen should be obtained to assess the type, severity and prognosis of the kidney disease. Treatment is primarily based on the use of corticosteroids. Steroid-sparing agents, such as disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs and infliximab can be applied; however, the evidence for efficacy of these therapies is mostly based on case series and expert opinions. Discontinuation of immunosuppression therapy bears a high risk of relapse.

[Gracilis tendon augmented reconstruction of the medial patellofemoral ligament with soft tissue fixation at the patellar insertion site]. / Ersatz des medialen patellofemoralen Ligaments durch autologe Gracilissehne mit implantat- und bohrkanalfreier patellarer Fixation.

OBJECTIVE: Reconstruction of the medial patellofemoral ligament with autologous tendon augmentation and soft tissue fixation at the patellar insertion with resorbable suture material. INDICATIONS: Patellofemoral instability due to insufficiency of the medial passive stabilizers and dysplastic trochlea. CONTRAINDICATIONS: Primary traumatic dislocation of the patella without risk factors for patellar redislocation, severe osteoarthritis of the patellofemoral joint, infection. SURGICAL TECHNIQUE: Diagnostic arthroscopy to evaluate cartilage and shape of trochlea and to treat associated injuries. Harvesting of the gracilis tendon and arming with resorbable suture material. Transfer of the tendon through the medial capsule in the anatomical layer of the MPFL and weaving in u-shape through the capsule and periosteum near the patella. Soft tissue fixation with resorbable suture material. Anatomical reconstruction of the femoral insertion site. Femoral fixation with interference screw. POSTOPERATIVE TREATMENT: For 4 weeks, partial (20 kg) weight bearing with crutches; cast with physiotherapy (limited ROM extension, flexion 0-0-90°). Thereafter free range of motion and full weight bearing. RESULTS: 27 patients (age 12-45 years) with patellofemoral instability underwent reconstruction of the medial patellofemoral ligament. Clinical follow-up was assessed up to 12 months postoperatively. After 1 year, the Kujala and Flandry scores increased from preoperatively 72 points to 95 points and 65.7 points to 89.9 points, respectively. One redislocation was observed. Patient satisfaction was significantly increased at 6 months postoperatively. Reconstruction of the medial patellofemoral ligament shows good clinical results after 12 months.

Renal sarcoidosis: epidemiological and follow-up data in a cohort of 27 patients.

BACKGROUND: Renal sarcoidosis (RS) is a possible manifestation of systemic sarcoidosis. The clinical presentation can range from asymptomatic individuals up to acute renal failure with the necessity of renal replacement therapy. The definite diagnosis must be established by renal biopsy. OBJECTIVES: Demonstration of clinical characteristics and effectiveness of steroid treatment. METHODS: We present a single center study of 27 patients with histologically proven RS. Firstly, we elaborate on descriptive features such as extra-renal organ involvement, calcium levels, renal function, proteinuria and histological subtypes and provide an histological assessment of renal damage. Secondly, we present follow-up data over a period of 2 years or more. RESULTS: Non-granulomatous tubulointerstitial nephritis (ngIN) was the most common histological entity (44%), followed by granulomatous IN (GIN, 30%), IgA-GN (26%) and nephrocalcinosis (11%). Under treatment with oral prednisone mean eGFR significantly improved from 38 ± 21 ml/min to 57 ± 26 ml/min and proteinuria decreased from 981 ± 304 mg/24 hrs to 176 ± 77 mg/24 hrs at the end of follow-up. In total, 62.5% of patients responded to therapy. CONCLUSIONS: We demonstrated that GIN is more often associated with advanced stages of renal insufficiency than any other histological manifestation of RS. Furthermore, prednisone therapy is effective in improving eGFR and in reducing total urinary protein secretion. We suggest that the key prognostic factor for renal survival in RS is the early response to treatment.

[What Makes Happy Doctors? Job Satisfaction of General Practitioners in Mecklenburg-Western Pomerania - a Representative Cross-sectional Study]. / Was macht Ärzte glücklich? Berufszufriedenheit von Hausärzten in Mecklenburg-Vorpommern - eine repräsentative Querschnittsstudie.

AIM: Studies provide evidence for the importance of general practitioners (GPs) job satisfaction for a secure and high quality health care provision. This study focuses on job satisfaction of GPs in Mecklenburg-Western Pomerania (MV), a rural area threatened by a lack of GPs. We investigate how satisfied GPs are with their job and which factors influence their job satisfaction. METHODS: All 1 133 GPs working in MV in December 2011 were asked to complete a 57-item-questionnaire. The response rate reached 50.1%. RESULTS: The sample is representative for GPs in MV. Levels of job satisfaction are high and correlate with age and sex: females and GPs below 50 years of age are more satisfied. Factors contributing to high job satisfaction include a good doctor-patient relationship, fair pay, and the variety of reasons for doctor-patient consultations in primary care. Although all GPs were dissatisfied with bureaucracy, this factor has little impact on GPs' overall job satisfaction. CONCLUSION: In light of the imminent lack of GPs, in future it will be important to improve factors that have been demonstrated to increase job satisfaction.

[Therapeutic outcome in tibial pseudarthrosis: bone morphogenetic protein 7 (BMP-7) versus autologous bone grafting for tibial fractures]. / Therapieerfolg bei atrophen Tibiaschaftpseudarthrosen : Bone Morphogenetic Protein 7 (BMP 7) versus autologe Spongiosaplastik.

Depending on the type and localisation, nonunions of tibial fractures will occur in 10-40% of cases. Bone morphogenetic protein 7 (BMP-7; Osigraft), a recombinant bone growth factor, can be implanted locally as an alternative to autologous bone grafting. The objective of our study was to compare the efficiency of the two procedures. From January 1995 to December 2002, 82 patients (group 1) with delayed union of a tibial fracture received autologous bone grafting as their first procedure. To compare their results with the efficiency of BMP-7, between May 2002 and June 2005 we followed up on 26 patients (group 2) who had local implantation of BMP-7 after having had, on average, four surgical procedures. Healing was considered successful if x-rays showed bony consolidation and if no further procedure was necessary. Group 1 had no signs of consolidation in 24 cases (28%), whereas group 2 had only two (8%) such patients (p=0.025). The BMP-7 group showed a significantly higher success rate compared with patients with autologous bone grafting, despite the fact that the BMP-7 group contained more complicated cases.

Irritant patch testing with sodium lauryl sulphate: interrelation between concentration and exposure time.

BACKGROUND: It is well known that the degree of skin reaction to an irritant depends on its concentration and exposure time. OBJECTIVES: To determine the interrelationship between the concentration of sodium lauryl sulphate (SLS) and exposure time in both weak (subclinical) and severe reactions. METHODS: Patch testing with SLS was performed at different concentrations (0.125%, 0.25%, 0.5%, 1.0% and 2.0%) and with different exposure times (3, 6, 12, 24 and 48 h). Evaluation was conducted by measurement of transepidermal water loss and by laser-Doppler flowmetry both 30 min and 24 h after patch removal. RESULTS: We found more reliable and constant skin reactions 24 h after patch removal, and a higher correlation between SLS concentration and skin reaction. CONCLUSIONS: We conclude that the concentration of SLS influences the test outcome to a larger degree than the exposure time. We present formulae by which the outcome of SLS patch testing at various SLS concentrations ranging from 0.125% to 2% and any exposure time between 3 and 24 h can be estimated.

Which bioengineering assay is appropriate for irritant patch testing with sodium lauryl sulfate?

For testing with sodium lauryl sulphate (SLS), measurements of transepidermal water loss (TEWL) and cutaneous blood flow with laser Doppler (LD) are considered to be the most reliable methods. The aim of this study was to determine which method of measurement should be preferred when conducting SLS testing under varying conditions. Patch testing with SLS at different concentrations and exposure times was performed. TEWL values were compared with those of LD. TEWL values showed distinct changes at low SLS concentrations and short application periods. By contrast, higher SLS concentrations were necessary to increase LD values. Short application of patches changed TEWL rather than LD values. When evaluating SLS patch testing by bioengineering methods, TEWL measurement appears to be more suitable for a test procedure that provokes mild skin reactions (SLS concentration <1%), whereas LD measurement is more appropriate to evaluate pronounced skin reactions (SLS concentration >or=1%).

Alagille syndrome associated with a paracentric inversion 20p12.2p13 disrupting the JAG1 gene.

Mutations in the human gene Jagged1 (JAG1) localized in 20p12 have been recently identified as causal for the anomalies found in patients with Alagille syndrome (AGS). This gene encodes a ligand for the Notch1 transmembrane receptor, which plays a key role in cell-to-cell signaling during differentiation and is conserved from C. elegans to human. We report a paracentric inversion (PAI) of chromosome 20p12.2p13 in an individual with AGS who also had alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency. To our knowledge, this is the first published case of PAI involving the short arm of chromosome 20. Using FISH, fiberFISH, and molecular studies with a approximately 40 kb cosmid clone encompassing the entire 36 kb JAG1 gene, we demonstrate that the gene was disrupted by the inversion breakpoint between exons 5 and 6. An unusual association between two most common causes of chronic liver disease in childhood, AGS and alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency, as well as their influence on the proband's abnormal phenotype are discussed.

Shift of aberrant antigen expression at relapse or at treatment failure in acute leukemia.

The flow cytometric detection of aberrant antigen expression is one method proposed for the quantification of minimal residual disease (MRD) in acute leukemias. The present study was designed to investigate the stability of the aberrant antigen expression at relapse or at treatment failure of initial chemotherapy. For this purpose, multiparameter immunophenotyping with a panel of 15 monoclonal antibodies was used at diagnosis as well as at relapse (43 patients with overall 65 aberrations) and at treatment failure (35 patients with overall 66 aberrations). There was a significant decrease in the percentage of the initially described aberrant antigen expression on leukemia blasts at relapse (P = 0.001; n = 65) as well as at treatment failure (P = 0.0001; n = 66) considering all aberrations in the whole leukemia population. Concerning only patients with acute myelogenous leukemia (AML), significant decreases in the aberrant expression could be detected at relapse (P = 0.031; n = 42) and at treatment failure (P = 0.0001; n = 52). The changes in patients with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) were significant only at relapse (P = 0.006; n = 23). Initially, the most informative aberration was not detectable in four patients at relapse and in seven patients at treatment failure. A decrease of under 50% of the initial value was observed in another 8 patients at relapse and in 10 patients at treatment failure. In further studies assessing the detection of aberrant antigen expression for MRD, quantification of the relapses should be explicitly analyzed regarding the persistence of the initially described aberrant antigen expression.

Inhibition by protein kinase C of the 86Rb+ efflux and vasorelaxation induced by P1075, a K(ATP) channel opener, in rat isolated aorta.

In rat aortic rings, P1075, an opener of ATP-dependent potassium channels (K(ATP) channels), produces relaxation and 86Rb+ efflux from preloaded tissues; the increase in 86Rb+ efflux qualitatively reflects K(ATP) channel opening. In this study we have investigated the effects of protein kinase C modulation on the 86Rb+ efflux stimulating, the vasorelaxant and the binding properties of P1075. Phorbol 12,13-dibutyrate (PDBu), a direct activator of protein kinase C, inhibited the 86Rb+ efflux produced by P1075 with an IC50 value of 20+/-2 nM. Phorbol 12-myristate 13-acetate (PMA), another stimulator of protein kinase C, was 150 times weaker in this respect whereas 4alpha-PDBu, the inactive stereoisomer of PDBu, was ineffective. Staurosporine (300 nM), an inhibitor of protein kinase C, induced a small but significant increase of P1075-induced tracer efflux and partially reversed the inhibitory effect of PDBu on P1075-stimulated tracer efflux. The vasorelaxant effect of P1075 was inhibited only to a moderate degree by PDBu at concentrations which inhibited P1075-induced 86Rb+ efflux to >90%; however, in the presence of PDBu, the relaxation kinetics of P1075 were increasingly slowed. The vasorelaxant effect of P1075 in the presence of PDBu was still sensitive to inhibition by glibenclamide (100 nM), the standard inhibitor of the K(ATP) channel openers. Specific binding of [3H]-P1075 to rat aortic rings was unaffected by PDBu and PMA even in the micromolar concentration range. The data show that stimulation of protein kinase C inhibits the K+ channel opening effect of P1075 in rat aorta and suggest that protein kinase C may exert a weak tonic inhibition on the K(ATP) channels in this vessel under quasiphysiological conditions. At concentrations of PDBu which essentially abolished P1075-induced tracer efflux, the glibenclamide-sensitive vasorelaxant effect of P1075 was slowed down but not prevented; this supports earlier suggestions that K+ channel openers are also able to relax smooth muscle cells by a mechanism independent of K(ATP) channel opening.

Activators of protein kinase A induce a glibenclamide-sensitive 86Rb+ efflux in rat isolated aorta.

The effect of activators of protein kinase A on membrane K+ permeability and the interaction of these compounds with cromakalim, an opener of ATP-sensitive K+ channels (K(ATP) channels), were investigated. Membrane K+ permeability was assessed by measuring 86Rb+ efflux from rings of rat aorta. Forskolin, an activator of adenylate cyclase, and isobutylmethylxanthine (IBMX), a nonselective phosphodiesterase inhibitor, induced small, concentration-dependent increases in tracer efflux up to 20-40% over the basal level. The effect of forskolin was abolished by the K+ channel blocker tedisamil (1 microM) and partially inhibited by glibenclamide (1 microM), a relatively selective blocker of K(ATP) channels. Further studies were conducted in the presence of 35 mM KCI in the bath in order to increase the size of the 86Rb+ efflux stimulated by forskolin and IBMX. At high concentrations, these compounds produced a biphasic effect with a peak increase being followed by a lower plateau value. Glibenclamide inhibited the 86Rb+ efflux response to forskolin and IBMX by 50-80%. The K+ channel blockers tedisamil (1 microM), Ba2+ (1 mM) and tetraethylammonium (10 mM) also reduced the peak response to forskolin by about 50% and abolished or greatly inhibited the plateau response. In addition to the small effect on basal 86Rb+ efflux, forskolin (0.3 microM) increased cromakalim-induced 86Rb+ efflux 3.4 times. At higher concentrations, however, a concentration-dependent inhibition was observed with an IC50 value of 7.6 +/- 0.4 microM. 1,9-dideoxyforskolin, which does not increase cAMP, increased neither basal nor cromakalim-induced 86Rb+ efflux; however, it inhibited cromakalim-stimulated tracer efflux with an IC50 value of 22 +/- 2 microM. It is concluded that forskolin and IBMX, probably by increasing intracellular cAMP levels, induce a 86Rb+ efflux from rat aorta, the major part of which is glibenclamide-sensitive and may pass through K(ATP) channels. In addition, low concentrations of forskolin greatly facilitate the K(ATP) channel opening effect of cromakalim whereas high concentrations block the channel; this blocking effect of forskolin is unrelated to the cAMP elevating action.

Pharmacological characterization of the sulphonylurea receptor in rat isolated aorta.

1. The binding of the sulphonylurea [3H]-glibenclamide, a blocker of adenosine 5'-triphosphate (ATP)-sensitive K+ channels (KATP channels), was studied in endothelium-denuded rings from rat aorta. 2. [3H]-glibenclamide labelled two classes of binding sites with KD values of 20 +/- 5 nM and 32 +/- 1 microM. The high affinity component, which comprised 17% of total binding at 1 nM [3H]-glibenclamide, had an estimated binding capacity of 150 fmol mg-1 wet weight. 3. Other sulphonylureas such as glipizide and glibornuride and the sulphonylurea-related carboxylate, AZ-DF 265, inhibited high affinity [3H]-glibenclamide binding with the potencies expected from their K+ channel activity. At very high concentrations, AZ-DF 265 and glipizide started to interact also with the low affinity component of [3H]-glibenclamide binding. 4. Openers of the ATP-sensitive K+ channel belonging to different structural groups inhibited only the high affinity [3H]-glibenclamide binding; the potencies in this assay were similar to those obtained in functional (i.e. vasorelaxation) studies. 5. High affinity [3H]-glibenclamide binding was abolished by prolonged hypoxia combined with metabolic inhibition. 6. The data indicate that the high affinity component of [3H]-glibenclamide binding mediates the block of the KATP channel by the sulphonylureas in rat aorta; hence, it represents the sulphonylurea receptor in this vessel. The pharmacological properties of this binding site resemble those of the binding site for the openers of the KATP channel; present evidence suggests that these two classes of sites are negatively allosterically coupled.

Sulphonylurea binding in rat isolated glomeruli: pharmacological characterization and dependence on cell metabolism and cytoskeleton.

The kidney is endowed with ATP-sensitive K+ channels (KATP channels) both at the vascular and at the epithelial level. In this study we have characterized the binding of the sulphonylurea glibenclamide, the most widely used blocker of KATP channels, in rat isolated glomeruli. In metabolically intact glomeruli, 3H-glibenclamide labelled two different binding components with affinities of 47 +/- 12 nM and 10 +/- 1 microM and estimated binding capacities of 1.2 +/- 0.1 and 501 +/- 11 pmol/mg protein, respectively. 3H-glibenclamide binding was inhibited differentially by other sulphonylureas (tolbutamide, glibornuride, gliquidone and glipizide) and benzoic acid analogues such as meglitinide, AZ-DF 265 and UL-DF 9. Sulphonylureas interacted with the high affinity component and, in some cases, also with the low affinity component whereas the benzoic acid derivatives inhibited exclusively low affinity glibenclamide binding. Severe metabolic stress affected both components of glibenclamide binding by shifting high affinity binding to the right and reducing the capacity of the low affinity component. Disruption of the cytoskeletal actin filaments by cytochalasin B and D mimicked the effect of metabolic stress on the high affinity component but left the low affinity component unchanged. In crude membranes, the affinity of the first component was again reduced and a major loss of the low affinity sites was observed. The data show that the two binding components of glibenclamide binding in rat isolated glomeruli have very different properties. The high affinity component is not recognized by the benzoic acid derivatives; its affinity is modulated by cell metabolism and the actin component of the cytoskeleton. The low affinity sites are, in their majority, cytosolic. The function and cellular localization of the high affinity sites are under further study.

Interaction between thiol-modifying agents and P1075, a K(ATP) channel opener, in rat isolated aorta.

In vascular smooth muscle, openers of ATP-dependent potassium channels (K(ATP) channels), such as P1075 (N-cyano-N'-(1,1-dimethylpropyl)-N"-3-pyridylguanidine), produce relaxation. In this study we have investigated the effects of thiol-modifying agents on the binding of P1075 and on the 86Rb+ efflux stimulating and vasorelaxant effects of the opener in rat aortic rings. The increase in 86Rb+ efflux induced by P1075 was taken as a qualitative measure of K+ channel opening. The hydrophilic SH-group-oxidizing substance, thimerosal (1 to 100 microM), abolished specific binding of [3H]-P1075 with an IC50 value of 7.6+/-1.2 microM; at 30 microM, the half time for inhibition was 38 min. Two other thioloxidizing agents, PMB (4-hydroxy-mercuribenzoic acid) and DTBNP (2,2'-dithio-bis(5-nitropyridine)), inhibited binding up to 86% and 44%, respectively. The disulphide bond reducing substance, DTT (1,4-dithiothreitol, 0.1 to 1 mM), reduced [3H]-P1075 binding by up to 20% and partially reversed the inhibitory effect of thimerosal. In 86Rb+ efflux experiments, thimerosal (3 to 100 microM) concentration-dependently increased basal efflux but inhibited P1075-stimulated tracer efflux with an IC50 value of 7+/-1 microM. The inhibitory effect occurred with a half-time of approximately 8 min and was essentially reversed by DTT. In rings precontracted with noradrenaline, thimerosal inhibited the vasorelaxant effect in a noncompetitive manner, shifting the concentration-relaxation curves to the right and reducing maximum relaxation. The data show that oxidation of thiol groups interferes with the binding of the K(ATP) channel opener, P1075; concomitantly, the 86Rb+ efflux stimulating and the vasorelaxant effects are inhibited. Reduction of disulphide bonds by DTT has only minor effects on the action of P1075. Collectively, the results suggest that intact thiol groups are essential for the functioning of the K(ATP) channel in rat aorta. The different kinetics governing the inhibition of opener binding and of opener-stimulated 86Rb+ efflux suggest that the SH-groups involved in the two processes differ in their accessibility to thimerosal and/or in their reactivity.

Interstitial deletion 5p accompanied by dicentric ring formation of the deleted segment resulting in trisomy 5p13-cen.

Karyotypes with an interstitial deletion and a marker chromosome formed from the deleted segment are rare. We identified such a rearrangement in a newborn infant, who presented with macrocephaly, asymmetric square skull, minor facial anomalies, omphalocele, inguinal hernias, hypospadias, and club feet. The karyotype 46,XY,del(5) (pter --> p13::cen --> qter)/47,XY,+dicr(5)(:p13 --> cen::p13 --> cen), del(5)(pter --> p13::cen --> qter) was identified by banding studies and FISH analysis in the peripheral lymphocytes. One breakpoint on the del(5) maps distal to GDNF, and FISH analysis using an alpha-satellite probe suggests that the proximal breakpoint maps within the centromere. The dicentric r(5) consists of two copies of the segment deleted in the del(5), resulting in trisomy of proximal 5p (5p13-cen). The phenotype of the propositus is compared with other trisomy 5p cases and possible mechanisms for the generation of this unique chromosomal rearrangement are discussed.