Association between antimicrobial resistance and biofilm forming ability of Salmonella enterica serotypes from commercial broiler farms in Brazil.

1. This study determined the antimicrobial resistance profile and the biofilm-forming ability of Salmonella enterica strains isolated from commercial broiler houses over a three-year period in southern Brazil.2. Of the 720 drag swabs analysed, 37 (5%) tested positive for non-typhoidal Salmonella spp. and S. Heidelberg was the most frequent serovar.3. Among the antimicrobial resistant strains (83.8%; 31/37), resistance was most common to tetracycline, ampicillin and nalidixic acid. Multidrug resistance was found in 65% (24/37) of the isolates, with a large proportion of multidrug resistant S. Heidelberg strains (81%; 13/16).4. In total, 65% (24/37) of the isolates showed the ability to produce biofilm and multiple antimicrobial resistance was negatively correlated with biofilm formation.5. Strains susceptible to all tested antimicrobials tended to form stronger biofilms than multidrug resistant ones. This suggested that Salmonella spp. with less antimicrobial resistance depend more on the protection provided by biofilm to survive in the farm environment.

Caution at choosing a particular colony-forming unit from faecal Escherichia coli: it may not represent the sample profile.

Data about phylogenetic classification of Escherichia coli colonizing calves, lambs and foals are routinely neglected and restricted to outdated methodologies, even in the context of antimicrobial susceptibility (AS) testing. Thus, the aim of this study was to determine the phylogenetic diversity and the AS profile of E. coli colony-forming units (CFUs) from faecal samples of healthy animals. Five CFUs of E. coli were randomly selected from each faecal culture of calves (n = 13), foals (n = 13) and lambs (n = 13), totalizing 195 CFUs phylo-typed by quadruplex PCR. The AS profile of five CFUs from 15 samples (five from each animal species; n = 75 isolates) against nine drugs was determined by agar diffusion test. We found E. coli belonging to all phylo-groups already described, except D group, with the predominance of B1 (65% CFUs; 126/195) in the three-animal species sampled. Most faecal samples of calves (77%; 10/13) and foals (69%; 9/13) harboured both pathogenic and nonpathogenic E. coli. All faecal samples showed CFUs with diverse AS profile, highlighting the ineffectiveness of tetracycline, sulphonamide and ampicillin. As a key point, our data reinforce the importance to select at least four E. coli CFUs for AS testing. SIGNIFICANCE AND IMPACT OF THE STUDY: This study provides relevant data about the high phylogenetic and antimicrobial susceptibility diversity observed in Escherichia coli colony-forming units (CFUs) from a bacteriological culture of faeces from healthy calves, foals and lambs. The selection pressure exerted by the herd treatment may directly impact the intestinal microflora of animals that have never been treated. Finally, we emphasize the importance of Clinical Laboratory Standards Institute guidelines and we recommended to analyse at least four E. coli CFUs to determine, in particular, the antimicrobial susceptibility profile of faecal isolates, independent of the animal's health status.

Antibacterial potential of phytochemicals alone or in combination with antimicrobials against fish pathogenic bacteria.

AIMS: This study investigated the antibacterial activity of five phytochemicals (carvacrol, citral, eugenol, linalool and thymol) alone or in combination with florfenicol or oxytetracycline against bacteria isolated from silver catfish (Rhamdia quelen). We also analysed the potential of these compounds to inhibit biofilm formation and haemolysis caused by the bacteria. METHODS AND RESULTS: Bacteria were tested with antimicrobials to calculate the multiple antibiotic resistances. The checkerboard assay was used to evaluate a putative synergy between five phytochemicals and antimicrobials against the strains isolated. The biofilm formation inhibition assay was performed with phytochemicals and antimicrobials, and the haemolysis inhibition assay was performed with the phytochemicals. Carvacrol, eugenol and thymol were the most effective phytochemicals. Three combinations (linalool with florfenicol or oxytetracycline against Aeromonas hydrophila and citral with oxytetracycline against Citrobacter freundii) demonstrated synergy in the checkerboard assay. All phytochemicals inhibited biofilm formation and haemolysis activity. CONCLUSION: The tested phytochemicals showed satisfactory activity against fish pathogenic bacteria. SIGNIFICANCE AND IMPACT OF THE STUDY: The phytochemicals did not present antagonistic interactions with the antimicrobials, allowing their combined use, which may contribute to a decrease in the use of conventional drugs and their residues in aquatic environment.

[Metastazation into the seminal vesicles due to primary goblet cell carcinoid of the vermiform appendix. An unusual diagnostic procedure of a seminal vesicle tumor]. / Samenblasenmetastase bei primärem Becherzellkarzinoid der Appendix vermiformis. Ein aussergewöhnlicher Abklärungsgang eines Samenblasentumors.

We report on a remarkable diagnostic work up of suspect rectal palpation results in a 54-year-old patient. According to a transrectal ultrasound-guided punch biopsy the patient was suspected of having a carcinoma of the seminal vesicles and an aggressive operational approach was considered. After a median laparotomy a generalized peritoneal carcinomatosis was found. A goblet cell carcinoid of the vermiform appendix was identified as the primary tumor. This case report deals with metastazation of a primary goblet cell carcinoma into the seminal vesicles on both sides as an extremely rare reason for suspicious rectal palpation results. The tumor valency, diagnostic work up, therapy and further differential diagnoses are described.

Community-acquired pneumonia. A prospective outpatient study.

We initiated a prospective study with a group of practitioners to assess the etiology, clinical presentation, and outcome of community-acquired pneumonia in patients diagnosed in the outpatient setting. All patients with signs and symptoms suggestive of pneumonia and an infiltrate on chest X-ray underwent an extensive standard workup and were followed over 4 weeks. Over a 4-year period, 184 patients were eligible, of whom 170 (age range, 15-96 yr; median, 43 yr) were included and analyzed. In 78 (46%), no etiologic agent could be demonstrated. In the remaining 92 patients, 107 etiologic agents were implicated: 43 were due to "pyogenic" bacteria (39 Streptococcus pneumoniae, 3 Haemophilus spp., 1 Streptococcus spp.), 39 were due to "atypical" bacteria (24 Mycoplasma pneumoniae, 9 Chlamydia pneumoniae, 4 Coxiella burnetii, 2 Legionella spp.), and 25 were due to viruses (20 influenza viruses and 5 other respiratory viruses). There were only a few statistically significant clinical differences between the different etiologic categories (higher age and comorbidities in viral or in episodes of undetermined etiology, higher neutrophil counts in "pyogenic" episodes, more frequent bilateral and interstitial infiltrates in viral episodes). There were 2 deaths, both in patients with advanced age (83 and 86 years old), and several comorbidities. Only 14 patients (8.2%) required hospitalization. In 6 patients (3.4%), the pneumonia episode uncovered a local neoplasia. This study shows that most cases of community-acquired pneumonia have a favorable outcome and can be successfully managed in an outpatient setting. Moreover, in the absence of rapid and reliable clinical or laboratory tests to establish a definite etiologic diagnosis at presentation, the spectrum of the etiologic agents suggest that initial antibiotic therapy should cover both S. pneumoniae and atypical bacteria, as well as possible influenza viruses during the epidemic season.

Age-specific seroprevalence to varicella-zoster virus: study in Swiss children and analysis of European data.

Up to date epidemiological data provide the rationale for potential varicella immunization strategies in Europe. The scope of this study was: (1) to generate new seroprevalence data by evaluating sera of 970 individuals aged 0-16 years for the presence of IgG against Varicella-zoster virus (VZV); and (2) to review existing seroprevalence data. Of 256 individuals >12 years of age, 96.1% (95% confidence interval [CI], 93.7-98.5) were seropositive. Swiss citizens > 12 years of age were less likely to be seronegative than foreign citizens (2.3 vs. 15.4%; odds ratio, 0.17; CI, 0.05-0.58). The age-specific seroprevalence curve demonstrated a peak at 7 years of age (84.9%; CI, 75.2-94.5) followed by lower rates at 8 and 9 years. A peak at 7-10 years of age was found in all previously reported seroprevalence curves (chi(2)-test for trend of pooled data, P = 0.09; Poisson analysis, P < 0.001). It is concluded that: (1) > 90% of individuals in Europe acquire immunity against VZV before adolescence; (2) there is no evidence for a recent upward shift of the age at primary varicella; and (3) there may be a north-to-south gradient of seroprevalence. The peak at 7-10 years may represent a transient loss of detectable antibody by some individuals.

Distinct serum cytokine levels in drug- and measles-induced exanthema.

BACKGROUND: Macular or maculopapular skin reactions are frequent events in drug allergy as well as in viral infections. Clinically, the differentiation may be difficult in the absence of a clear relationship to drug intake or failure to detect virus-specific antibodies of the IgM class. Studies on drug-specific T cell lines and T cell clones isolated from drug-allergic patients have suggested that these cells may represent a significant source of IL-5. On the other hand, viral infections are frequently associated with elevated IFN-gamma levels. OBJECTIVE: Determination of serum-cytokine levels to differentiate between drug- and virally induced skin eruptions. PATIENTS: 18 patients suffering from acute drug allergy and 19 patients with acute measles, rubella or parvovirus infection. MEASUREMENTS: Cytokine-ELISA (IL-5, IL-4 and IFN-gamma) of sera collected during acute drug allergy or during acute measles, rubella or parvovirus infection. RESULTS: In 12/18 patients with drug allergy, IL-5 and/or IL-4 were elevated. A significant correlation (r(Spearman) = 0.84) between IL-5 serum levels and eosinophil counts in the blood was found. No correlation was detected between IL-4 and blood eosinophilia or between IL-4 and IL-5 levels. After remission, IL-5 and IL-4 decreased to undetectable levels. IFN-gamma on the other hand was not measurable in patients with drug allergy while elevated IFN-gamma serum levels were detected in 17/19 patients with measles, rubella or parvovirus infection; 2 patients with acute virus infection had elevated IL-5, and/or IL-4 and IFN-gamma levels. CONCLUSION: These data underline the distinct pathogenesis of these morphologically similar exanthemas and suggest that the combined analysis of eosinophilia in the blood, IL-4 and IFN-gamma might help in differentiating skin eruptions.

Decay of passively acquired maternal antibodies against measles, mumps, and rubella viruses.

The decay of maternally derived antibodies to measles, mumps, and rubella viruses in Swiss infants was studied in order to determine the optimal time for vaccination. A total of 500 serum or plasma samples from infants up to 2 years of age were tested by enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay and fluorescent-antibody testing. The decline of antibody prevalence was slowest against the measles virus. By 9 to 12 months of age, only 5 of 58 (8.6%; 95% CI, 2.9 to 19.0) infants were antibody positive for the measles virus, and only 2 had levels above 200 mIU/ml. Mumps and rubella virus antibody seropositivity was lowest at 9 to 12 months of age with 3 of 58 (5. 2%; 95% CI, 1.1 to 14.4) infants and at 12 to 15 months with 1 of 48 (2.1%; 95% CI, 0.1 to 11.1) infants, respectively. Concentrations of passively acquired antibodies decreased rapidly within the first 6 months of life. We observed no significant differences in antibody prevalence or concentration according to gender in any age group. In conclusion, MMR vaccination at 12 instead of 15 months of age could reduce the pool of susceptible subjects in infancy and support the efforts to eliminate these infections, particularly in combination with a second vaccine dose before school entry.

HAART in HIV-infected patients: restoration of antigen-specific CD4 T-cell responses in vitro is correlated with CD4 memory T-cell reconstitution, whereas improvement in delayed type hypersensitivity is related to a decrease in viraemia.

OBJECTIVE: To analyse prospectively the effect of highly active antiretroviral treatment (HAART) on CD4 T-cell responses in vitro and in vivo in HIV-infected patients. DESIGN: Prospective study with 49 protease inhibitor-naive adult patients. Data were collected at baseline and after 3 and 6 months of HAART. METHODS: In vitro CD4 T-cell reactivity was analysed by stimulation of peripheral blood mononuclear cells with several antigens. In vivo CD4 T-cell reactivity (delayed type hypersensitivity) was assessed by Multitest Merieux. Both measurements were correlated to CD4 (memory) T-cell count and HIV-1 viraemia. RESULTS: Restoration of specific CD4 T-cell proliferation was observed in most patients. The in vitro T-cell response was restored more frequently against antigens to which the immune system is constantly exposed (Candida albicans, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, M. avium) as compared with a low-exposure antigen (tetanus toxoid). Overall, delayed type hypersensitivity detection rate increased under HAART. Multivariate analysis showed improvement of antigen-specific T-cell proliferation to be significantly associated with an increase in memory CD4 T-cells, whereas improvement of the delayed type hypersensitivity response was associated with a decrease in plasma HIV-1 RNA. CONCLUSIONS: HAART for 6 months restored antigen-specific CD4 T-cell response to several antigens. In vitro immune reconstitution was closely correlated with an increase in memory CD4 cells. Restoration of delayed type hypersensitivity was associated with suppression of viraemia. It appears that in addition to expansion of memory CD4 cells, suppression of viraemia following HAART may allow an improved inflammatory reaction, thus providing even stronger immune reconstitution.

[Increasing the immunization rate against measles, mumps, and rubella in medical students at the University of Berne]. / Die Erhöhung der Immunitätsrate von Medizinstudentinnen und -studenten gegen Masern, Mumps und Röteln an der Universität Bern.

From 1992 to 1997 the seroprevalence of antibodies against measles, mumps and rubella (MMR) in Swiss medical students was between 77.3% and 86.2%, which is clearly below the target of > 95%. To prevent MMR infections in doctors and possible transmission to their patients, in 1994 we started a project in which MMR vaccination was offered to non-immune students. During three courses in medical school, 82 of 87 (94.3%) non-immune students were vaccinated, thus increasing the immunization rate to more than 96%. We have developed a spread sheet allowing calculation of the direct costs of two different strategies: 1. Determination of immunity followed by MMR vaccination of non-immune students; 2. Universal MMR immunization. Screening before vaccination was less expensive if the immunity level was higher than 73.5% and the calculation was based on prices for mass screening and mass vaccination. Universal immunization was favoured when prices for individual antibody determinations and vaccinations were used for the calculation. A targeted programme of MMR vaccination was successful in increasing the immunization rate of medical students against MMR to > 96%.

[Angiosarcoma of the kidney. Case report and review of the literature]. / Angiosarkom der Niere. Fallbeispiel und Literaturübersicht.

The primary renal angiosarcoma is a rarely seen highly malignant tumor. Making a diagnosis based on histology may prove difficult. Because of hematogenous formation of metastases and bad prognosis in most cases we recommend that the surgical intervention be followed by the well tolerated systemic chemotherapy with Doxorubicin and Ifosfamid.

High frequency of non-B subtypes in newly diagnosed HIV-1 infections in Switzerland.

HIV-1 subtypes were determined in newly diagnosed residents of Switzerland. Blood was anonymously collected from patients with a first confirmed positive HIV-1 test result. Viral DNA from the env V3-V5 region was amplified by nested polymerase chain reaction (PCR) and screened for subtype B by heteroduplex mobility assay. All amplicons not identified as B were sequenced. From November 1996 to February 1998, 206 samples were analyzed. Main transmission risks were unprotected heterosexual (55.7%) or homosexual (27.1%) sexual contact or intravenous drug use (12.9%). Subtype B dominated in patients of Swiss, other European, American, or Asian citizenship; particularly high frequencies were found in homosexuals (97%) and drug users (94%). Non-B subtypes including A, C, D, E, F, G, H, a possible B/F recombinant, and a sequence related to J were present in 28.2% (95% confidence interval [CI], 22.9%-35.0%). Non-B were frequent in African citizens (95%), heterosexually infected individuals (44%), and women (43%). Heterosexually infected Swiss males harbored non-B strains in 18% and females in 33%. The results document a change in the epidemiology of newly diagnosed HIV-1 infections in Switzerland: predominance of heterosexual transmission and a high frequency of non-B subtypes.

Molecular epidemiology of tuberculosis among HIV-infected persons in Switzerland: a countrywide 9-year cohort study. Swiss HIV Cohort Study.

We investigated tuberculosis transmission during a nine-year period (1988-1996) in a countrywide community-based cohort of HIV-infected persons in Switzerland (the Swiss HIV Cohort Study [SHCS]). We estimated the proportion of tuberculosis cases due to reinfection and relapse, and assessed factors which may increase the risk of tuberculosis transmission. HIV-infected persons were followed prospectively and molecular fingerprinting with insertion sequence (IS) 6110, 36-bp direct repeat, and IS6110-PCR was used to determine M. tuberculosis case clustering. Out of 7999 SHCS participants, 267 persons developed tuberculosis. 158 M. tuberculosis isolates from 138 patients were available for study. Molecular analysis identified 33 (24%) episodes of tuberculosis associated with 12 clusters including 2 to 8 patients. Two patients experienced reinfection, and nine had a relapse. Detailed contact investigation identified definite or possible epidemiological links between 21 of 33 cluster patients (64%). Multivariate logistic regression analysis did not identify any risk marker significantly associated with clustering. During a nine-year period, one fourth of tuberculosis cases were grouped in clusters within a selection of 138 HIV-infected patients. This may represent the lowest estimation of recently acquired tuberculosis infection. There were no large institutional or community outbreaks among HIV-infected participants of the Swiss HIV Cohort Study.

Outbreak of echovirus 30 meningitis in Switzerland.

This study includes 80 patients (38 children and 42 adults) who contracted aseptic meningitis in the summer of 1996 in Fribourg, Switzerland. Virological studies revealed an enteroviral infection in 65 out of 70 (93%) investigated patients. In 47 out of the 53 cases (89%) where a precise virus could be identified, the causative agent was an Echovirus 30. More than 50 patients lived in an area within a 5-km radius. The patients presented with the classic symptoms and signs of aseptic meningitis. In contrast, polymorphonuclear leukocytes predominated in the cerebrospinal fluid in the first 24 h and 32% of the cases had a left shift in their peripheral blood smear. The patients' age did not influence white blood cell count, the proportion of polymorphonuclear leukocytes or protein concentration in the cerebrospinal fluid. Thirty-three patients (41%) received antibiotic treatment, and 38 patients (48%) left the hospital within 24 h. Only 2 neuroradiological procedures and 1 electroencephalographic recording were performed. The outcome was favourable in all patients.

Diagnosis by polymerase chain reaction of pneumonia caused by Legionella pneumophila in an immunocompetent child.

A 10-year-old, previously healthy child with pneumonia caused by Legionella pneumophila diagnosed by polymerase chain reaction (PCR) of serum is presented. Diagnostic methods were PCR of serum using two different primer sets, and the detection of specific antibody in paired sera using an indirect immunofluorescence assay. Legionella DNA was amplified from serum obtained before and on day 6, but not after completion of a 14-day course of oral clarithromycin. The etiologic role of L. pneumophila was confirmed by seroconversion. The report illustrates that L. pneumophila PCR of serum may contribute to the identification of this microorganism as a cause of severe pneumonia in immunocompetent children.

Detection by PCR of enteroviruses in cerebrospinal fluid during a summer outbreak of aseptic meningitis in Switzerland.

Enteroviruses (EV) are among the most common causes of aseptic meningitis. Standard diagnostic techniques are often too slow and lack sensitivity to be of clinical relevance. EV RNA can be detected within 5 h by a commercially available reverse transcription-PCR (RT-PCR) test kit. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) samples from 68 patients presenting with aseptic meningitis during a summer outbreak in Switzerland were examined in parallel with cell culture and commercial RT-PCR. RT-PCR was positive in all 16 CSF specimens positive by cell culture (100%). In addition, 42 of 52 (80%) CSF samples negative by cell culture were PCR positive. In 26 of these 42 (62%) patients, viral culture from other sites (throat swab or stool) was also positive. The CSF virus culture took 3 to 7 days to become positive. Echovirus 30 was the type most often isolated in this outbreak. The sensitivity of CSF RT-PCR based on clinical diagnosis during this aseptic meningitis outbreak in patients with negative bacterial culture results was 85%, i.e., considerably higher than the sensitivity of CSF virus culture (24%). We conclude that this commercial RT-PCR assay allows a positive diagnosis with minimal delay and may thus influence clinical decisions.

Detection of mumps virus in clinical specimens by rapid centrifugation culture and conventional tube cell culture.

Conventional tube cell culture was compared with a 2 day and 5 day spin-amplified shell vial indirect immunofluorescence assay for the detection of mumps virus in swabs from the area of Stensen's duct. The sensitivity and specificity of the shell vial assay were 95.9 and 100%, respectively. The shell vial detected 66.3% of the positive cultures within 2 days of inoculation while the first positive results were available by conventional tube cell culture after 3 days (1.6%) reaching 72.4% of all culture positive specimens after 7 days. These data suggest that a centrifugation shell vial indirect immunofluorescence assay may be useful for rapid detection of mumps virus in clinical specimens.

[HIV diagnosis 1998]. / HIV-Diagnostik 1998.

Due to considerable technical progress during the last few years the diagnosis of HIV-infection has been substantially improved. Third generation antibody screening assays, which also detect antibodies of the IgM and IgA type, have considerably narrowed the immunological window. The determination of the viral load in peripheral blood employing nucleic acid amplification techniques is now generally available and used for diagnostic and prognostic purposes as well as for the monitoring of antiviral therapy. To detect a HIV-infection the antibody screening assay is primarily used and complemented by the HIV-1 p24 antigen assay provided an early primary infection is suspected. In the latter case the antibody screening assay is often negative or indeterminate, while the p24 antigen assay is positive. According to the 1998 guidelines of the Federal Office for Public Health, the physician will be informed of the screening assay result without the need to await a confirmatory test in case of a reactive screening assay in the first sample. Confirmation, e.g. by immunoblot, will be done in a second blood sample which should be sent to the laboratory as soon as possible. EDTA-blood is recommended for this purpose, because it is best suited for quantification of plasma viremia, which has become a prerequisite for the institution and follow-up of antiretroviral treatment. The second sample will also serve to exclude false positive results due to clerical errors, and to determine the type of HIV, i.e. HIV-1 or HIV-2. The concept outlined should accelerate the availability of reactive test results to the physician and should reduce the cost of the diagnostic procedure.