Distribution patterns of segmental aneuploidies in human blastocysts identified by next-generation sequencing.

OBJECTIVE: To evaluate the ability of next-generation sequencing (NGS) to detect pure and mosaic segmental aneuploidies in trophectoderm biopsies and to identify distribution patterns in whole blastocysts. DESIGN: Validation study. SETTING: Reference laboratory. PATIENT(S): Seventy couples with known karyotypes who had undergone preimplantation genetic screening with diagnoses at the blastocyst stage using array comparative genomic hybridization (aCGH). INTERVENTION(S): None. MAIN OUTCOME MEASURE(S): Concordance rates for segmental and whole-chromosome aneuploidies determined between aCGH and NGS, and estimates of mosaicism levels of segmental aneuploidies in fixed blastocysts. RESULT(S): We used NGS with amplified DNA from trophectoderm biopsies in which segmental aneuploidies had been previously detected by array comparative genomic hybridization (aCGH). Single-cell fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) was then used as an independent form of analysis. The concordance rate between NGS and aCGH was 124 (98.4%) of 126 for the detection of segmental aneuploidies, and 48 (96.0%) of 50 for whole-chromosome aneuploidies. The overall concordance rate was 99.8% (2,276 of 2,280 chromosomes assessed). After FISH analyses with 41.4 ± 24.3 cells per blastocyst, 26 (92.9%) of 28 segmentals detected by aCGH and NGS were confirmed. The FISH analysis did not detect the segmentals in two blastocysts, in which all cells analyzed were euploid. CONCLUSION(S): This is the first report analyzing distribution patterns of segmental aneuploidies in trophectoderm biopsy by NGS. We have demonstrated that NGS allows the detection of pure and mosaic segmental aneuploidies with the same efficiency as aCGH. The FISH analysis confirmed the existence of these events in the trophectoderm and the inner cell mass.

Altered levels of mitochondrial DNA are associated with female age, aneuploidy, and provide an independent measure of embryonic implantation potential.

Mitochondria play a vital role in embryo development. They are the principal site of energy production and have various other critical cellular functions. Despite the importance of this organelle, little is known about the extent of variation in mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) between individual human embryos prior to implantation. This study investigated the biological and clinical relevance of the quantity of mtDNA in 379 embryos. These were examined via a combination of microarray comparative genomic hybridisation (aCGH), quantitative PCR and next generation sequencing (NGS), providing information on chromosomal status, amount of mtDNA, and presence of mutations in the mitochondrial genome. The quantity of mtDNA was significantly higher in embryos from older women (P=0.003). Additionally, mtDNA levels were elevated in aneuploid embryos, independent of age (P=0.025). Assessment of clinical outcomes after transfer of euploid embryos to the uterus revealed that blastocysts that successfully implanted tended to contain lower mtDNA quantities than those failing to implant (P=0.007). Importantly, an mtDNA quantity threshold was established, above which implantation was never observed. Subsequently, the predictive value of this threshold was confirmed in an independent blinded prospective study, indicating that abnormal mtDNA levels are present in 30% of non-implanting euploid embryos, but are not seen in embryos forming a viable pregnancy. NGS did not reveal any increase in mutation in blastocysts with elevated mtDNA levels. The results of this study suggest that increased mtDNA may be related to elevated metabolism and are associated with reduced viability, a possibility consistent with the 'quiet embryo' hypothesis. Importantly, the findings suggest a potential role for mitochondria in female reproductive aging and the genesis of aneuploidy. Of clinical significance, we propose that mtDNA content represents a novel biomarker with potential value for in vitro fertilisation (IVF) treatment, revealing chromosomally normal blastocysts incapable of producing a viable pregnancy.

Application of next-generation sequencing technology for comprehensive aneuploidy screening of blastocysts in clinical preimplantation genetic screening cycles.

STUDY QUESTION: Can next-generation sequencing (NGS) techniques be used reliably for comprehensive aneuploidy screening of human embryos from patients undergoing IVF treatments, with the purpose of identifying and selecting chromosomally normal embryos for transfer? SUMMARY ANSWER: Extensive application of NGS in clinical preimplantation genetic screening (PGS) cycles demonstrates that this methodology is reliable, allowing identification and transfer of euploid embryos resulting in ongoing pregnancies. WHAT IS KNOWN ALREADY: The effectiveness of PGS is dependent upon the biology of the early embryo and the limitations of the technology. Fluorescence in situ hybridization, used to test for a few chromosomes, has largely been superseded by microarray techniques that test all 24 chromosomes. Array comparative genomic hybridization (array-CGH) has been demonstrated to be an accurate PGS method and has become the de facto gold standard, but new techniques, such as NGS, continue to emerge. STUDY DESIGN, SIZE, DURATION: The study consisted of a prospective trial involving a double blind parallel evaluation, with both NGS and array-CGH techniques, of 192 blastocysts obtained from 55 consecutive clinical PGS cycles undertaken during the period of September to October 2013. Consistency of NGS-based aneuploidy detection was assessed by matching the results obtained with array-CGH-based diagnoses. Primary outcome measure was accuracy of the chromosomal analysis; secondary outcome measures were clinical outcomes. PARTICIPANTS/MATERIALS, SETTINGS, METHODS: Fifty-five patients (median age 39.3 years, range 32-46) undergoing PGS were enrolled in the study. All embryos were cultured to blastocyst stage; trophectoderm biopsy was performed on Day 5 of development or Day 6/7 for slower growing embryos. The method involved whole genome amplification followed by both NGS and array-CGH. The MiSeq control software, real-time analysis and reporter performed on-board primary and secondary bioinformatics analysis. Copy number variation analysis was accomplished with BlueFuse Multi software. MAIN RESULTS AND THE ROLE OF CHANCE: A total of 192 blastocysts were blindly evaluated with the NGS-based protocol. Paired comparison between NGS and array-CGH from individual embryos showed concordant results in 191/192 (99.5%) of the blastocysts tested. In total 4608 chromosomes were assessed, 211 (4.6%) of which carried a copy number imbalance. NGS specificity for aneuploidy calling (consistency of chromosome copy number assignment) was 99.98% (4333/4334; 95% confidence interval [95% CI]: 99.87-100) with a sensitivity of 100% (211/211, 95% CI: 99.25-100). Despite one discordant result, NGS specificity and sensitivity for aneuploid embryo calling (24-chromosome diagnosis consistency) were both 100% since the discordant sample presented several other aneuploidies. Clinical application of the NGS-based approach revealed 74/192 (38.5%) euploid blastocysts. Following transfer of 50 embryos in 47 women, 34 women had positive hCG levels: 30 pregnancies continued, confirmed by at least one fetal sac and heart beat (63.8% clinical pregnancy rate/embryo transfer), 3 were biochemical and 1 miscarried. A total of 32 embryos implanted and led to the presence of a fetal sac (64.0% implantation rate). All pregnancies went to term resulting in the birth of 31 healthy babies. LIMITATION, REASON FOR CAUTION: Although clinical results reported high pregnancy outcomes following transfer of screened embryos, further data and broad-based clinical application are required to better define the role of NGS in PGS. Before recommending widespread application, a randomized controlled trial confirming its clinical effectiveness is advisable. WIDER IMPLICATION OF THE FINDING: This is the first study reporting extensive application of NGS-based comprehensive aneuploidy screening on embryos at blastocyst stage in a clinical setting versus array-CGH as test of reference. NGS has demonstrated a reliable methodology, with the potential to improve chromosomal diagnosis on embryos especially in terms of high-throughput, automation and ability to detect aneuploidy. NGS methodology may represent a valuable alternative to the other comprehensive aneuploidy screening techniques currently available. STUDY FUNDING/COMPETING INTERESTS: No external funding was sought for this study. Drs F.K. and C.-E.M. are full-time employees of Illumina, Inc., which provided NGS library and sequencing reagents for the study. All other authors have no conflicts to declare. TRIAL REGISTRATION NUMBER: Not applicable.

Development and validation of a next-generation sequencing-based protocol for 24-chromosome aneuploidy screening of embryos.

OBJECTIVE: To validate a next-generation sequencing (NGS)-based method for 24-chromosome aneuploidy screening and to investigate its applicability to preimplantation genetic screening (PGS). DESIGN: Retrospective blinded study. SETTING: Reference laboratory. PATIENT(S): Karyotypically defined chromosomally abnormal single cells and whole-genome amplification (WGA) products, previously analyzed by array comparative genomic hybridization (array-CGH), selected from 68 clinical PGS cycles with embryos biopsied at cleavage stage. INTERVENTION(S): None. MAIN OUTCOME MEASURE(S): Consistency of NGS-based diagnosis of aneuploidy compared with either conventional karyotyping of single cells or array-CGH diagnoses of single blastomeres. RESULT(S): Eighteen single cells and 190 WGA products from single blastomeres, were blindly evaluated with the NGS-based protocol. In total, 4,992 chromosomes were assessed, 402 of which carried a copy number imbalance. NGS specificity for aneuploidy call (consistency of chromosome copy number assignment) was 99.98% (95% confidence interval [CI] 99.88%-100%) with a sensitivity of 100% (95% CI 99.08%-100%). NGS specificity for aneuploid embryo call (24-chromosome diagnosis consistency) was 100% (95% CI 94.59%-100%) with a sensitivity of 100% (95% CI 97.39%-100%). CONCLUSION(S): This is the first study reporting extensive preclinical validation and accuracy assessment of NGS-based comprehensive aneuploidy screening on single cells. Given the high level of consistency with an established methodology, such as array-CGH, NGS has demonstrated a robust high-throughput methodology ready for clinical application in reproductive medicine, with potential advantages of reduced costs and enhanced precision.

Correlation of clinical trachoma and infection in Aboriginal communities.

BACKGROUND: Trachoma is the leading infectious cause of blindness due to conjunctival infection with Chlamydia trachomatis. The presence of active trachoma and evidence of infection are poorly correlated and a strong immunologically-mediated inflammatory response means that clinical signs last much longer than infection. This population-based study in five Aboriginal communities endemic for trachoma in northern Australia compared a fine grading of clinical trachoma with diagnostic positivity and organism load. METHODS: A consensus fine grading of trachoma, based on clinical assessment and photograding, was compared to PCR, a lipopolysacharide (LPS)-based point-of-care (POC) and a 16S RNA-based nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT). Organism load was measured in PCR positive samples. RESULTS: A total of 1282 residents, or 85.2% of the study population, was examined. Taking the findings of both eyes, the prevalence of trachomatous inflammation-follicular (TF) in children aged 1-9 years was 25.1% (96/383) of whom 13 (13.7%) were PCR positive on the left eye. When clinical data were limited to the left eye as this was tested for PCR, the prevalence of TF decreased to 21.4% (82/383). The 301 TF negative children, 13 (4.3%) were PCR positive. The fine grading of active trachoma strongly correlated with organism load and disease severity (rs = 0.498, P = 0.0004). Overall, 53% of clinical activity (TF(1) or TF(2)) and 59% of PCR positivity was found in those with disease scores less than the WHO simplified grade of TF. CONCLUSION: Detailed studies of the pathogenesis, distribution and natural history of trachoma should use finer grading schemes for the more precise identification of clinical status. In low prevalence areas, the LPS-based POC test lacks the sensitivity to detect active ocular infection and nucleic acid amplification tests such as PCR or the 16S-RNA based NAAT performed better. Trachoma in the Aboriginal communities requires specific control measures.

Performance evaluation of a new rapid urine test for chlamydia in men: prospective cohort study.

OBJECTIVE: To evaluate the performance of a rapid test for chlamydia with first void male urine samples as a potential tool for diagnosis and screening of chlamydial infection in men. DESIGN: Evaluation of test performance in prospective cohort study. Settings A young people's sexual health centre (site 1) and a genitourinary medicine clinic (site 2) in the United Kingdom. PARTICIPANTS: 1211 men aged 16-73 attending either of the two sites. MAIN OUTCOME MEASURES: Sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value, and negative predictive value of the Chlamydia Rapid Test versus polymerase chain reaction assay. Relation between the visual signal of the Chlamydia Rapid Test and organism load. RESULTS: Detection rates for Chlamydia trachomatis infection with polymerase chain reaction were 4.4% (20/454) at site 1 and 11.9% (90/757) at site 2. Compared with polymerase chain reaction assay, the resolved sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value, and negative predictive value of the Chlamydia Rapid Test was 82.6% (90/109), 98.5% (1085/1102), 84.1% (90/107), and 98.3% (1085/1104), respectively. The organism load in first void urine samples that were positive for chlamydia ranged from 7.28x10(2) to 6.93x10(6) plasmids/ml and correlated significantly with the visual signal of the Chlamydia Rapid Test (r=0.7897, P<0.001). CONCLUSIONS: The performance of the new Chlamydia Rapid Test with first void male urine samples indicates that it would be an effective diagnostic tool for chlamydial infection in men. The availability of test results within an hour allows for immediate treatment and contact tracing, potentially reducing the risks of persistent infection and onward transmission. The test could also provide a simple and reliable alternative to nucleic acid amplification assays for testing of male urine in chlamydial screening programmes in high prevalence settings.

Optimal method of collection of first-void urine for diagnosis of Chlamydia trachomatis infection in men.

First-void urine (FVU) is the preferred specimen for the diagnosis of urogenital Chlamydia trachomatis infection in men. We have developed FirstBurst, a urine collection device that collects the first 4 to 5 ml of FVU and yields a specimen with a sixfold higher C. trachomatis organism load than the regular urine cup by quantitative PCR (32,533 versus 5,271 plasmids/ml; P < 0.0001). Consequently, the use of FirstBurst to collect a urine sample improved the sensitivity of a rapid test for Chlamydia over testing of samples collected with a urine cup (82 versus 47% sensitivity using PCR as a reference; P < 0.0015).

Prevalence of Chlamydia trachomatis infection among low- and high-risk Filipino women and performance of Chlamydia rapid tests in resource-limited settings.

The prevalence of urogenital Chlamydia trachomatis infection was determined with a PCR-based test of women from low- and high-risk populations in Iloilo City, Philippines, between August 2002 and March 2006. Two rapid tests for C. trachomatis, Clearview Chlamydia MF and the Chlamydia Rapid Test (CRT), were also evaluated in these resource-limited settings. Specimens were obtained from female sex workers (FSWs; n = 1,484) attending a social hygiene clinic (SHC) and from women (n = 838) attending an obstetrics-gynecology (OB-GYN) clinic. The sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value (PPV), and negative predictive value (NPV) of the rapid tests were determined, with PCR as the gold standard. The PCR positivity rate for SHC participants (72% asymptomatic) ranged from 17.9 to 32.0% during the study period. Compared with those of PCR, the sensitivities and specificities of the Clearview test were 53.5 and 99.1%, respectively, with endocervical swab specimens (CS; n = 822) from the FSWs and 31.1 and 95.2%, respectively, with vaginal swab specimens (VS; n = 333) from these women. The sensitivity, specificity, PPV, and NPV of the CRT with VS from the FSWs were 71.0, 99.0, 97.1, and 87.9%, respectively. At the OB-GYN site, the PCR positivity rate with VS was 6.3%. The sensitivity, specificity, PPV, and NPV of the CRT with these specimens were 86.8, 99.6, 93.9, and 99.1%, respectively. The performance of the Clearview test at the SHC was thus markedly lower with VS than with CS, whereas the CRT performed well with VS from both populations.

Chlamydia trachomatis variant not detected by plasmid based nucleic acid amplification tests: molecular characterisation and failure of single dose azithromycin.

OBJECTIVE: To characterise a Chlamydia trachomatis variant strain from a patient with non-gonococcal urethritis (NGU) whose first void urine (FVU) displayed discrepant Ctrachomatis test results and describe the clinical response to treatment. METHODS: The FVU specimen was assayed with an immune based Chlamydia Rapid Test (CRT) and various nucleic acid amplification tests (NAATs) to establish C trachomatis infection. Sequencing of the major outer membrane protein gene (omp1 also known as ompA) was undertaken to identify the serovar of the variant strain. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) analysis was also conducted to determine whether the strain harboured deletions in the cryptic plasmid or was plasmid free. RESULTS: The FVU specimen was strongly reactive in CRT but negative with the plasmid based Amplicor PCR (Roche) and ProbeTec ET (Becton-Dickinson) assays. However, NAATs for 16S RNA (Aptima Combo 2, GenProbe), omp1 (RealArt CT PCR, Artus and in-house NAATs) or the outer membrane complex B protein gene (omcB) established C trachomatis infection. Sequencing of omp1 showed that the variant belonged to serovar I. PCR analysis indicated that the variant was plasmid free. The patient did not respond to single dose azithromycin treatment but subsequently responded to a course of doxycycline. CONCLUSIONS: A pathogenic plasmid free C trachomatis variant was identified. Clinicians should be alerted to the possibility of undetected C trachomatis infection caused by such variants and the potential of azithromycin failure in patients with recurrent chlamydial NGU. The occurrence of this variant is rare and should not form the basis for judgment of the performance or usefulness of plasmid based NAATs for C trachomatis detection.

Chlamydia trachomatis load at matched anatomic sites: implications for screening strategies.

Urethral and endocervical swabs and self-collected vaginal swabs (SCVSs) and urine specimens are all used as samples for diagnosis of urogenital infection with Chlamydia trachomatis. We have now determined chlamydial organism load in matched specimens from different anatomic sites and examined its relation to clinical signs and symptoms in men and women. Organism load was measured with assays based on the ligase chain reaction or real-time PCR analysis. The mean organism loads in 58 infected men were 1,200 and 821 elementary bodies (EBs) per 100 microl of sample for first-void urine (FVU) and urethral swabs, respectively (P>0.05). Organism load in FVU samples or urethral swabs was positively associated with symptoms (P<0.01) and clinical signs (P<0.01) in men. The mean organism loads in 73 infected women were 2,231, 773, 162, and 47 EBs/100 microl for endocervical swabs, SCVSs, urethral swabs, and FVU samples, respectively (P<0.001 for each comparison). Only the presence of multiple symptoms or clinical signs was associated with organism load in women. These results show that FVU is a suitable noninvasive sample type for men, given the fact that its chlamydial load did not differ significantly from that of urethral swabs. Given their higher organism load compared with FVU, SCVSs are the preferred noninvasive sample type for women.

Field evaluation of a rapid point-of-care assay for targeting antibiotic treatment for trachoma control: a comparative study.

BACKGROUND: Trachoma results from repeated episodes of conjunctival infection with Chlamydia trachomatis and is the leading infectious cause of blindness. To eliminate trachoma, control programmes use the SAFE strategy (Surgery, Antibiotics, Face cleanliness, and Environmental improvement). The A component is designed to treat C trachomatis infection, and is initiated on the basis of the prevalence of the clinical sign trachomatous inflammation-follicular (TF). Unfortunately, TF correlates poorly with C trachomatis infection. We sought to assess a newly developed point-of-care (POC) assay compared with presence of TF for guiding the use of antibiotics for trachoma control. METHODS: We compared performance outcomes of the POC assay and presence of TF using commercial PCR as a comparator in 664 children aged 1-9 years in remote, trachoma-endemic villages in Tanzania. Signs of trachoma were graded according to the WHO simplified trachoma grading system. FINDINGS: Of 664 participants, 128 (19%) were positive for ocular C trachomatis infection by PCR. Presence of TF had a sensitivity of 64.1% (95% CI 55.8-72.4), specificity of 80.2% (76.8-83.6), and positive predictive value of 43.6% (36.5-50.7). By contrast, the POC assay had a sensitivity of 83.6% (77.2-90.0), specificity of 99.4% (98.8-100.0), and positive predictive value of 97.3% (94.2-100.3). Interagreements and intra-agreements between four novice operators were 0.988 (0.973-1.000) and 0.950 (0.894-1.000), respectively. INTERPRETATION: The POC assay is substantially more accurate than TF prevalence in identifying the presence or absence of infection. Additional studies should assess the use of the assay in the planning and monitoring of trachoma control activities.