Characterisation of Myxobolus stellatus n. sp. (Cnidaria: Myxobolidae) infecting the cranial nerves and ganglia of the spotfin hatchetfish Thoracocharax stellatus (Kner) (Characiformes: Gasteropelecidae) from Colombia.

A previously undescribed Myxobolus sp. was isolated from the cranial nerves and ganglia of the spotfin hatchetfish Thoracocharax stellatus (Kner) that exhibited neurologic signs following importation from Colombia. Associated plasmodia formed space-occupying masses within nerves, compressing neuronal cell bodies and causing axonal degeneration. Myxospores from these fish were morphologically and molecularly distinct from other myxobolids infecting the central nervous system of characins. In valvular view, spores are pyriform with a rounded posterior and tapering anterior aspect. Myxospore bodies are 17.0-19.4 (mean 18.4) µm long and 8.2-9.3 (mean 8.8) µm wide. Polar capsules are asymmetrical and pyriform with a neck-like projection at the apical end. The small polar capsule measures 4.3-5.9 × 2.2-3.1 (mean 5.0 × 2.6) µm, while the large polar capsule measures 9.1-10.7 × 4.9-6.3 (mean 9.9 × 5.4) µm wide. The sequence generated for the small subunit rRNA (18S) gene did not directly match any sequences available on GenBank, but demonstrated 92% nucleotide similarity to Myxobolus axelrodi Camus, Dill, Rosser, Pote & Griffin, 2017 infecting Paracheirodon axelrodi (Schultz). This study provides the first morphological, histological and molecular characterisation of Myxobolus stellatus n. sp. from the spotfin hatchetfish.

Ovavesicula popilliae (Microsporidia: Ovavesiculidae) spore production in naturally infected adult Japanese beetles (Coleoptera: Scarabaeidae).

Ovavesicula popilliae is a microsporidian that infects both Japanese beetle larvae and adults. This is the first study quantifying the number of O. popilliae spores produced by Japanese beetle adults. Mean spore production per adult Japanese beetle was 2.67 × 10(7) (SE ± 4.65 × 10(6)) spores with a range of 1.46 × 10(6)-1.02 × 10(8). The number of spores produced per host is similar to other microsporidian species and may help explain the speed with which this pathogen has spread from introduction sites to surrounding areas.

Survey of pathogens and parasitoids of Popillia japonica (Coleoptera: Scarabaeidae) in northwest Arkansas.

The impact of pathogens and parasitoids on the recently established population of Popillia japonica Newman in northwest Arkansas has been unknown. In this study, we quantified the prevalence of natural enemies: Stictospora villani Hays, Ovavesicula popilliae Andreadis and Hanula, Paenibacillus spp. (Dingman), nematodes and parasitic Diptera and Hymenoptera in third instar and adult populations in 2010 and 2011. S. villani was found in 38.4% and 35.5% of larvae in 2010 and 2011, respectively. S. villani was not found in adult beetles. Paenibacillus bacteria were not found in either larvae or adults in either year. In 2010, the microsporidian O. popilliae was not found in larvae but was present in 0.2% of adults. In 2011, 2.6% of larvae were infected with O. popilliae, but the microsporidian was not found in adults. A previously unknown Adelina sp. was found infecting 0.4% of adult beetles in 2010 and 1.3% of larvae in 2011. Nematode infections were found in 1.8% of larvae and 0.1% of adults in 2010 and not found in either life stage in 2011. No parasitic Hymenoptera or Diptera were found in either year. Apparently, pathogens and parasitoids currently provide little control of the Japanese beetle population within northwest Arkansas.

Effects of ritonavir-boosted lopinavir on the pharmacokinetics of quinine.

The centuries-old antimalarial drug, quinine, continues to play a critical role in the treatment of severe falciparum malaria and uncomplicated malaria in pregnant women. It shares cytochrome P450 (CYP )-mediated metabolic pathways with several commonly used antiretroviral drugs, raising the potential for clinically important drug­drug interactions. A phase I pharmacokinetic study was conducted to assess the impact of long-term use of ritonavir-boosted lopinavir (LPV/r) on quinine pharmacokinetics in healthy volunteers. LP V/r significantly decreased the exposure of quinine and its major active metabolite, 3-hydroxyquinine, in both total and free (unbound) forms. These findings highlight the complex nature of the influence exerted by LPV/r on several of the drug-metabolizing enzymes involved in quinine disposition,including CYP 3A4, UDP-glucuronosyltransferase (UG T), and P-glycoprotein (P-gp). A decline in quinine exposure may compromise clinical efficacy. Further studies are warranted to assess changes in quinine pharmacokinetics and treatment outcomes in patients with acute malaria receiving antiretroviral therapy that includes LPV/r.

Factors influencing nerve regeneration in a trial of timcodar dimesylate.

The authors assessed the ability of the neurophilin compound, timcodar dimesylate, to accelerate the return of epidermal nerve fiber density (ENFD) after a standardized nerve injury in a randomized double blind, placebo controlled trial. While there was no difference in the regeneration rate between the treatment and placebo arms, the baseline ENFD (p = 0.006), height (p = 0.02), and race (p = 0.03) were associated with the regeneration rate.

Standardization of a broth microdilution susceptibility testing method to determine minimum inhibitory concentrations of aquatic bacteria.

A multiple laboratory study was conducted in accordance with the standards established by the Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI), formerly the National Committee for Clinical Laboratory Standards (NCCLS), for the development of quality control (QC) ranges using dilution antimicrobial susceptibility testing methods for bacterial isolates from aquatic animal species. QC ranges were established for Escherichia coli ATCC 25922 and Aeromonas salmonicida subsp. salmonicida ATCC 33658 when testing at 22, 28 and 35 degrees C (E. coli only) for 10 different antimicrobial agents (ampicillin, enrofloxacin, erythromycin, florfenicol, flumequine, gentamicin, ormetoprim/sulfadimethoxine, oxolinic acid, oxytetracycline and trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole). Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) QC ranges were determined using dry- and frozen-form 96-well plates and cation-adjusted Mueller-Hinton broth. These QC ranges were accepted by the CLSI/NCCLS Subcommittee on Veterinary Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing in January 2004. This broth microdilution testing method represents the first standardized method for determining MICs of bacterial isolates whose preferred growth temperatures are below 35 degrees C. Methods and QC ranges defined in this study will enable aquatic animal disease researchers to reliably compare quantitative susceptibility testing data between laboratories, and will be used to ensure both precision and inter-laboratory harmonization.

Adverse intraoperative medical events and their association with anesthesia management strategies in cataract surgery.

OBJECTIVE: To compare adverse medical events by different anesthesia strategies for cataract surgery. DESIGN: Prospective cohort study. PARTICIPANTS: Patients 50 years of age and older undergoing 19,250 cataract surgeries at nine centers in the United States and Canada between June 1995 and June 1997. INTERVENTION: Local anesthesia applied topically or by injection, with or without oral and intravenous sedatives, opioid analgesia, hypnotics, and diphenhydramine (Benadryl). MAIN OUTCOME MEASURES: Intraoperative and postoperative adverse medical events. RESULTS: Twenty-six percent of surgeries were performed with topical anesthesia and the remainder with injection anesthesia. There was no increase in deaths and hospitalizations associated with any specific anesthesia strategy. No statistically significant difference was observed in the prevalence of intraoperative events between topical and injection anesthesia without intravenous sedatives (0.13% and 0.78%, respectively). The use of intravenous sedatives was associated with a significant increase in adverse events for topical (1.20%) and injection anesthesia (1.18%), relative to topical anesthesia without intravenous sedation. The use of short-acting hypnotic agents with injection anesthesia was also associated with a significant increase in adverse events when used alone (1.40%) or in combination with opiates (1.75%), sedatives (2.65%), and with the combination of opiates and sedatives (4.04%). These differences remained after adjusting for age, gender, duration of surgery, and American Society of Anesthesiologists risk class. CONCLUSIONS: Adjuvant intravenous anesthetic agents used to decrease pain and alleviate anxiety are associated with increases in medical events. However, cataract surgery is a safe procedure with a low absolute risk of medical complications with either topical or injection anesthesia. Clinicians should weigh the risks and benefits of their use for individual patients.

Injectable versus topical anesthesia for cataract surgery: patient perceptions of pain and side effects. The Study of Medical Testing for Cataract Surgery study team.

OBJECTIVE: To compare patient reports of intraoperative pain and postoperative side effects by different anesthesia strategies for cataract surgery. DESIGN: Prospective cohort study. PARTICIPANTS: Men and women 50 years of age and older undergoing 19,250 cataract surgeries at nine centers in the United States and Canada from June 1995 through June 1997. INTERVENTION: Topical anesthesia or anesthesia with injection, with or without sedatives, opioid analgesia, hypnotics, and diphenhydramine (Benadryl). MAIN OUTCOME MEASURES: Patient ratings of intraoperative pain, satisfaction with pain management, and early postoperative side effects (drowsiness, nausea, vomiting, or a combination thereof). RESULTS: Twenty-six percent of surgeries were performed using topical anesthesia alone, and the remainder were performed with peribulbar, retrobulbar, or facial nerve block, or a combination thereof. Local anesthesia by injection with sedatives and diphenhydramine resulted in the lowest reporting of any intraoperative pain (1.3%), with postoperative drowsiness (9.6%) and nausea, vomiting, or both (1.5%) comparable with those administered topical anesthesia alone. Among those receiving topical anesthesia, use of sedatives and opioids reduced reports of any pain during surgery by 56% (95% confidence interval [CI], 34%, 70%), but increased nausea and vomiting (odds ratio, 2.27; 95% CI, 1.26, 4.09) compared with those administered topical anesthesia alone, after adjusting for age, gender, race, American Society of Anesthesiologists risk class, self-reported health status, and duration of surgery. Among those receiving local injections, use of opioids reduced reports of any pain among those receiving sedatives by 37% (95% CI, 15%, 54%), but did not increase postoperative side effects. The use of diphenhydramine among those receiving sedatives decreased reports of any pain by 59% (95% CI, 33%, 75%) and also reduced drowsiness and nausea and vomiting by 57% (95% CI, 48%, 65%) and by 60% (95% CI, 36%, 75%), respectively. Use of hypnotics with sedatives was associated with increased reports of any pain during surgery and increased nausea and vomiting after surgery. CONCLUSIONS: Patient reports of any pain during cataract surgery (5%) and postoperative side effects (16% drowsiness and 4% nausea and vomiting) were low, but varied by anesthesia strategy. Patient perceptions of pain and side effects can be helpful in guiding the appropriate choice of anesthesia strategy.

The value of routine preoperative medical testing before cataract surgery. Study of Medical Testing for Cataract Surgery.

BACKGROUND: Routine preoperative medical testing is commonly performed in patients scheduled to undergo cataract surgery, although the value of such testing is uncertain. We performed a study to determine whether routine testing helps reduce the incidence of intraoperative and postoperative medical complications. METHODS: We randomly assigned 19,557 elective cataract operations in 18,189 patients at nine centers to be preceded or not preceded by a standard battery of medical tests (electrocardiography, complete blood count, and measurement of serum levels of electrolytes, urea nitrogen, creatinine, and glucose), in addition to a history taking and physical examination. Adverse medical events and interventions on the day of surgery and during the seven days after surgery were recorded. RESULTS: Medical outcomes were assessed in 9408 patients who underwent 9626 cataract operations that were not preceded by routine testing and in 9411 patients who underwent 9624 operations that were preceded by routine testing. The most frequent medical events in both groups were treatment for hypertension and arrhythmia (principally bradycardia). The overall rate of complications (intraoperative and postoperative events combined) was the same in the two groups (31.3 events per 1000 operations). There were also no significant differences between the no-testing group and the testing group in the rates of intraoperative events (19.2 and 19.7, respectively, per 1000 operations) and postoperative events (12.6 and 12.1 per 1000 operations). Analyses stratified according to age, sex, race, physical status (according to the American Society of Anesthesiologists classification), and medical history revealed no benefit of routine testing. CONCLUSIONS: Routine medical testing before cataract surgery does not measurably increase the safety of the surgery.

Tolerability of recombinant-methionyl human neurotrophin-3 (r-metHuNT3) in healthy subjects.

This phase I, double-blind, randomized, placebo-controlled study evaluated the safety of single and multiple (daily for 7 days) subcutaneous administrations of recombinant-methionyl human neurotrophin-3 (r-metHuNT3) in healthy human volunteers at seven doses, ranging from 3 to 500 microg/kg/day. No serious or life-threatening adverse events occurred. The most frequently recorded adverse effects were mild injection-site pain, diarrhea, and elevation of liver function tests. No change in neurologic function was noted with these dosing regimens. We conclude that r-metHuNT3 is safe and well tolerated in the dosages used in this study.

NPS R-568: a type II calcimimetic compound that acts on parathyroid cell calcium receptor of rats to reduce plasma levels of parathyroid hormone and calcium.

Calcimimetics like N-(3-[2-chlorophenyl]propyl)-(R)-alpha-methyl-3-methoxybenzylamine (NPS R-568) potentiate the effects of extracellular Ca(2+) on parathyroid Ca(2+) receptors and inhibit parathyroid hormone (PTH) secretion in vitro. When administered by gavage to normal rats in this study, NPS R-568 caused a rapid, dose-dependent (ED(50), 1.1 +/- 0.7 mg/kg) decrease in PTH levels that was paralleled by a subsequent decrease in plasma Ca(2+) (ED(50), 10.4 +/- 3.7 mg/kg). At higher doses (>/=3.3 mg/kg), PTH was reduced to a minimum level within 15 min, the duration of which was dose dependent. With doses of 10 to 100 mg/kg, the hypocalcemia was rapid in onset (<30 min) and, at 33 to 100 mg/kg, persisted for >24 h. Neither the magnitude nor the kinetics of the hypocalcemic response was affected by total nephrectomy, demonstrating that NPS R-568 does not induce hypocalcemia by acting on renal Ca(2+) receptors to increase Ca(2+) excretion. In contrast, parathyroidectomy (intact thyroid) abolished the hypocalcemic response to NPS R-568, regardless of whether the rats were hypocalcemic or rendered acutely normo- or hypercalcemic by calcium infusion before dosing. These data show that the parathyroid Ca(2+) receptor can be selectively activated in vivo with a small organic compound to decrease plasma levels of PTH and Ca(2+) and thus define the mechanism of action of this compound in vivo. Moreover, the data add pharmacological support to the view that the Ca(2+) receptor is the primary molecular entity regulating systemic Ca(2+) homeostasis.

Calcimimetic compound NPS R-568 stimulates calcitonin secretion but selectively targets parathyroid gland Ca(2+) receptor in rats.

N-(3-[2-Chlorophenyl]propyl)-(R)-alpha-methyl-3-methoxybenzylamine (NPS R-568) is an orally active compound that activates Ca(2+) receptors on parathyroid cells and rapidly suppresses plasma levels of parathyroid hormone (PTH) and Ca(2+) (ED(50), 1 and 10 mg/kg, respectively). We now show that increased calcitonin secretion contributes to NPS R-568-induced hypocalcemia. In parathyroidectomized thyroid-intact rats in which normocalcemia was restored by PTH infusion, NPS R-568 rapidly reduced plasma Ca(2+) levels, indicating that decreased PTH secretion was not solely responsible for the hypocalcemia seen in normal animals. NPS R-568 decreased plasma Ca(2+) levels in thyroidectomized parathyroid-intact rats, but the rate of onset of hypocalcemia was slower than in controls. In contrast, NPS R-568 had no effect on plasma Ca(2+) levels in PTH-infused, thyroparathyroidectomized rats, providing evidence that increased calcitonin secretion caused the hypocalcemia in PTH-infused parathyroidectomized rats. NPS R-568 rapidly increased plasma calcitonin levels to a peak at 10 to 20 min after oral dosing (ED(50) 40 mg/kg). NPS R-568 did not affect the rate of disappearance of (45)Ca from blood, indicating that hypocalcemia resulted from decreased influx of Ca(2+) into the circulation and not from increased efflux. This suggests that NPS R-568-induced hypocalcemia resulted solely from reduced efflux of Ca(2+) from bone after increased calcitonin and reduced PTH secretion. Thus, NPS R-568 causes hypocalcemia by activating Ca(2+) receptors on C cells and parathyroid cells; however, NPS R-568 is about 40 times more potent in reducing PTH levels than in increasing calcitonin levels.

Escalating multiple-dose safety and tolerance study of oral WR 6026 in HIV-infected subjects: AIDS clinical trials group 173.

WR 6026 is an 8-aminoquinoline with activity against Pneumocystis carinii in vitro and in an animal model of P. carinii pneumonia that has predicted the clinical utility of related compounds. This study was conducted to assess the safety and tolerance of WR 6026 given once daily for 21 days to HIV-infected subjects with CD4 counts <500 cells/microl. This double-blind, placebo-controlled study employed WR 6026 doses starting at 30 mg once daily and increasing to 60, 90, 120, or 150 mg once daily. Weekly visits for clinical and laboratory monitoring were conducted. Forty-nine study subjects, including 25 subjects with CD4 counts <200 cells/microl and 12 subjects with CD4 counts <100 cells/microl, entered the study. The maximum tolerated dose was 120 mg/day. Dose-limiting methemoglobinemia (>20%) was seen in 3 of 6 study subjects who received 150 mg/day for > or =19 days. Methemoglobin level was correlated with peak plasma WR 6026 concentrations. Three other study subjects developed skin rashes that may have been drug-related, and two developed asymptomatic serum triglyceride levels >1000 mg/dl. We conclude that WR 6026 is well tolerated at doses up to 120 mg/day for 21 days in HIV-infected volunteers including those with CD4 counts <200 cells/microl. Methemoglobinemia appears to be the primary dose-limiting toxicity.

Prospective determination of the hormonal response after cessation of luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone agonist treatment in patients with prostate cancer.

OBJECTIVES: To determine the hormonal (luteinizing hormone [LH] and testosterone) and biochemical (serum prostate-specific antigen [PSA]) response to withdrawal of luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH) agonists in patients who received more than 2 years of LHRH therapy for advanced prostate cancer. METHODS: Fourteen patients with clinical Stage T3 or higher prostate cancer and no evidence of clinical or biochemical progression, who had received 2 years or more of LHRH therapy, were enrolled at the time of their scheduled 3-month depot injection. Patients underwent history, physical examination, and measurement of serum PSA, LH, and testosterone at baseline, monthly for 3 months, and then every 3 months for 1 year following LHRH withdrawal. RESULTS: The mean age of patients was 70.3 years (range 56 to 84). Patients previously received LHRH agonist for a mean of 38.6 months (range 25 to 82). All patients had castrate levels of testosterone (median 10.0 ng/dL) and suppressed LH levels (median 0.1 mIU/mL) at baseline. Median baseline PSA was 0.15 ng/mL. On multiple groupwise comparison, there was no significant change (compared with baseline) in LH or testosterone until 6 months after withdrawal and no change in PSA throughout the duration of the study (median PSA at 1 2 months 0.30 ng/mL). Despite significant increases in LH and testosterone when compared with baseline beginning at 6 months, both LH and testosterone remained markedly suppressed, with median testosterone remaining in the castrate range at both 6 and 9 months and significantly below the lower limit of normal at 12 months (median 111.0 ng/dL). Despite no statistically significant change for the entire cohort in serum PSA, a rising PSA was noted in 4 patients between 3 and 9 months, and LHRH therapy was reinitiated. The remaining patients continued to have suppressed LH and testosterone, with 4 patients remaining in the castrate range at 12 months. CONCLUSIONS: The recovery of function of the hypothalamic-pituitary-testicular axis after prolonged LHRH administration is variable. Castrate levels of testosterone and suppressed LH may persist even up to 1 year after discontinuing LHRH. These results have significant implications regarding the interpretation of clinical trials incorporating neoadjuvant and adjuvant hormonal therapy. Further studies are needed to expand on these preliminary observations and should also address the feasibility of incorporating LHRH withdrawal into clinical practice.

Clinical pharmacokinetics of 1-[((S)-2-hydroxy-2-oxo-1,4,2-dioxaphosphorinan-5-yl)methyl]cytosine in human immunodeficiency virus-infected patients.

The pharmacokinetics and bioavailability of 1-[((S)-2-hydroxy-2-oxo-1,4,2-dioxaphosphorinan-5-yl)methyl]cytosi ne (cyclic HPMPC) were examined at four doses in 22 patients with human immunodeficiency virus infection. Two groups of six patients received a single dose of cyclic HPMPC at 1.5 or 3.0 mg/kg of body weight by each of the oral and intravenous routes in a random order with a 2-week washout period between administrations. Additional patients received single intravenous doses of cyclic HPMPC at 5.0 mg/kg (n = 6) or 7.5 mg/kg (n = 4). Serial serum and urine samples were collected at intervals over 24 h after dosing. The concentrations of cyclic HPMPC and cidofovir in serum and urine samples were determined by validated reverse-phase ion-pairing high-performance liquid chromatography methods with derivatization and fluorescence detection. After intravenous administration of cyclic HPMPC, concentrations of cyclic HPMPC declined in a biexponential manner, with a mean +/- standard deviation half-life of 1.09 +/- 0.12 h (n = 22). The pharmacokinetics of cyclic HPMPC were independent of dose over the dose range of 1.5 to 7.5 mg/kg. The total clearance of cyclic HPMPC from serum and the volume of distribution of intravenous cyclic HPMPC were 198 +/- 39.6 ml/h/kg and 338 +/- 65.1 ml/kg, respectively (n = 22). The renal clearance of cyclic HPMPC (132 +/- 27.3 ml/h/kg; n = 22) exceeded the creatinine clearance (86.2 +/- 16.3 ml/h/kg), indicating active tubular secretion. The cyclic HPMPC excreted in urine in 24 h accounted for 71.3% +/- 16.0% of the administered dose. Cidofovir was formed from cyclic HPMPC in vivo with a time to the maximum concentration in serum of 1.64 +/- 0.23 h (n = 22). Cidofovir levels declined in an apparent monoexponential manner, with a mean terminal half-life of 3.98 +/- 1.26 h (n = 22). The cidofovir excreted in urine in 24 h accounted for 9.40% +/- 2.33% of the administered cyclic HPMPC dose. Exposure to cidofovir after intravenous administration of cyclic HPMPC was dose proportional and was 14.9% of that from an equivalent dose of cidofovir. The present study suggests that intravenous cyclic HPMPC also has a lower potential for nephrotoxicity in humans compared to that of intravenous cidofovir. The oral bioavailabilities of cyclic HPMPC were 1.76% +/- 1.48% and 3.10% +/- 1.16% with the administration of doses of 1.5 and 3.0 mg/kg, respectively (n = 6 per dose). The maximum concentrations of cyclic HPMPC in serum were 0.036 +/- 0.021 and 0.082 +/- 0.038 microgram/ml after the oral administration of doses of 1.5 and 3.0 mg/kg, respectively. Cidofovir reached quantifiable levels in the serum of only one patient for each of the 1.5- and 3.0-mg/kg oral cyclic HPMPC doses.

The effect of increasing gastric pH upon the bioavailability of orally-administered foscarnet.

For systemic use, the anti-cytomegalovirus (CMV) agent foscarnet must be given intravenously because oral administration results in unmeasurable or barely measurable plasma levels. At low pH, foscarnet decomposes via an acid-catalyzed decarboxylation; therefore, poor oral bioavailability might be due to decomposition of foscarnet in gastric acid. We evaluated whether increasing gastric pH with ranitidine would enhance the absorption of oral foscarnet in six asymptomatic HIV-infected individuals. Each volunteer received two oral 4000-mg (60 mg/kg) doses of foscarnet, preceded intravenously by a 20-min infusion of either ranitidine 50 mg in D5W or D5W alone in a randomized, double-blind, cross-over study. Intragastric pH monitoring revealed that subjects had evidence of gastric acid production (pH < 2.0) prior to administration of ranitidine and increased gastric pH (pH > 6.0) following ranitidine administration. Most foscarnet plasma levels were below the assay limit of detection (33 microM) with only 4/30 levels detectable after D5W and 8/30 after ranitidine. Urinary recovery of foscarnet increased after ranitidine pretreatment. A mean recovery of 9.9% of the drug was realized in the urine in 24 h following ranitidine pretreatment compared to 6.2% of the dose after D5W pretreatment (P < 0.03). We estimate that 9.9% recovery in the urine in 24 h is equivalent to absorption of 17.1% of the oral dose. In spite of the enhanced bioavailability associated with ranitidine pretreatment, the degree of absorption is still insufficient to achieve effective plasma concentrations for the treatment of CMV or acyclovir-resistant herpes viruses. We conclude that gastric acidity is a determinant of foscarnet absorption, albeit not a major one. Oral foscarnet is unlikely to be clinically useful even if administered in the setting of increased gastric pH.