Does smoking have an impact on the immunological response to COVID-19 vaccines? Evidence from the VASCO study and need for further studies.

OBJECTIVES: The aim of this study was to investigate the possible impact of smoking on the humoral response to the BNT162b2 mRNA COVID-19 vaccine (also known as the BioNTech-Pfizer COVID-19 vaccine). STUDY DESIGN: A longitudinal sero-epidemiological study was conducted in sample of Italian healthcare workers (HCWs). METHODS: HCWs who were administered two doses of the BNT162b2 mRNA vaccine, 21 days apart, between December 2020 and January 2021, were invited to undergo multiple serology tests to identify SARS-CoV-2 S-RBD-specific immunoglobulin G (IgG) antibodies. Participants also responded to questions about their smoking status (i.e. current smokers vs non-smokers) in a survey. RESULTS: Sixty days after the completion of the vaccination cycle, serological analyses showed a difference in vaccine-induced IgG titre between current smokers and non-smokers, with median antibody titres of 211.80 AU/mL (interquartile range [IQR] 149.80-465.50) and 487.50 AU/mL (IQR 308.45-791.65) [P-value = 0.002], respectively. This significant difference in vaccine-induced IgG titres between current smokers and non-smokers remained after adjusting for age, sex, and previous infection with SARS-CoV-2. CONCLUSIONS: This study observed that vaccine-induced antibody titres decrease faster among current smokers than non-smokers. Further research to investigate the impact of smoking on the immunological response to COVID-19 and non-COVID-19 vaccines is required.

A grapevine leaves dataset for early detection and classification of esca disease in vineyards through machine learning.

Esca is one of the most common disease that can severely damage grapevine. This disease, if not properly treated in time, is the cause of vegetative stress or death of the attacked plant, with the consequence of losses in production as well as a rising risk of propagation to the closer grapevines. Nowadays, the detection of Esca is carried out manually through visual surveys usually done by agronomists, requiring enormous amount of time. Recently, image processing, computer vision and machine learning methods have been widely adopted for plant diseases classification. These methods can minimize the time spent for anomaly detection ensuring an early detection of Esca disease in grapevine plants that helps in preventing it to spread in the vineyards and in minimizing the financial loss to the wine producers. In this article, an image dataset of grapevine leaves is presented. The dataset holds grapevine leaves images belonging to two classes: unhealthy leaves acquired from plants affected by Esca disease and healthy leaves. The data presented has been collected to be used in a research project jointly developed by the Department of Information Engineering, Polytechnic University of Marche, Ancona, Italy and the STMicroelectronics, Italy, under the cooperation of the Umani Ronchi SPA winery, Osimo, Ancona, Marche, Italy. The dataset could be helpful to researchers who use machine learning and computer vision algorithms to develop applications that help agronomists in early detection of grapevine plant diseases. The dataset is freely available at http://dx.doi.org/10.17632/89cnxc58kj.1.

The -29G/A FSH receptor gene polymorphism is associated with higher FSH and LH levels in normozoospermic men.

PURPOSE: The functional role of the FSHR promoter -29G/A polymorphism (rs1394205) in men is not clear. Some studies failed to find a relationship between the FSHR -29G/A and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels and did not associate the SNP with male infertility. Only one study showed that the FSHR -29 SNP modulates serum FSH levels in Baltic young male cohort. Because the SNP -29G/A has to be shown to have a strong effect on in vitro transcription activity of the FSHR promoter and the activation of FSHR is necessary for a normal FSH function, this study was undertaken to assess whether the FSHR -29G/A SNP modulates the gonadal endocrine function in men. METHODS: A total of 200 men with alteration of conventional sperm parameters or normozoospermia (according to the parameters WHO 2010), were genotyped by TaqMan Assay. Hormone levels were measured by immunoassay, and sperm analysis was performed according to the World Health Organization criteria. RESULTS: A significant gradient of increasing FSH levels across the FSHR -29G/A genotypes was observed (p < 0.01). Among normozoospermic men (n = 110), those with FSHR -29A-allele carriers (GA + AA and AA) had higher serum FSH (p < 0.01) and LH levels (p < 0.05) and higher body mass index (BMI) (p < 0.01) compared to men with the GG genotype. The carrier status of rs1394205 genotypes did not affect the other endocrine parameters neither in men with altered sperm parameters nor in normozoospermic men. CONCLUSIONS: The FSHR -29G/A polymorphism modulates FSH and, for the first time, LH serum levels and BMI in normozoospermic men. These findings underline the importance to pay close attention to the studies of genetic variations associated with clinical-endocrine parameters.

Impact of the FSHB gene -211G/T polymorphism on male gonadal function.

PURPOSE: The FSHB gene -211G/T polymorphism has been reported to modulate gene expression and to cause inter-individual differences in FSH serum levels in men. This study was undertaken to assess the functional relevance of this polymorphism on gonadotropin and total testosterone serum levels and sperm parameters in men from Eastern Sicily (Italy). METHODS: To accomplish this, 200 men with abnormal conventional sperm parameters or normozoospermia (according to the parameters of WHO 2010) were genotyped by TaqMan Assay. RESULTS: The frequency of FSHB -211 T allele was significantly higher (p < 0.005) in patients with altered conventional sperm parameters (18.9% of chromosomes) compared to that observed in men with normozoospermia (10.9% of chromosomes). Decreasing serum levels of FSH and LH were observed across the three FSHB -211 genotype subgroups (p < 0.001 and p < 0.05, respectively). In addition, the FSHB -211G/T polymorphism showed a total testosterone downward trend that became more evident in men with the TT genotype compared to subjects with the GG genotype (p = 0.05). Furthermore, we found a trend towards decreased sperm concentration, total sperm count, sperm forward motility and testicular volume in men with GT and TT genotypes. CONCLUSIONS: These findings showed that the FSHB -211 G/T polymorphism modulates male gonadal function with a clear influence on hormonal levels and sperm parameters. CAPSULE: The present study was undertaken to evaluate the distribution of the FSHB -211 G/T in men with normal or abnormal sperm parameters from Southern Italy to assess its functional relevance on the serum levels of reproductive hormones and on sperm parameters in men.

How does the selection of landscape classification schemes affect the spatial pattern of natural landscapes? An assessment on a coastal wetland site in southern Italy.

It is widely known that thematic resolution affects spatial pattern and landscape metrics performances. In literature, data dealing with this issue usually refer to a specific class scheme with its thematic levels. In this paper, the effects of different land cover (LC) and habitat classification schemes on the spatial pattern of a coastal landscape were compared. One of the largest components of the Mediterranean wetland system was considered as the study site, and different schemes widely used in the EU were selected and harmonized with a common thematic resolution, suitable for habitat discrimination and monitoring. For each scheme, a thematic map was produced and, for each map, 28 landscape metrics were calculated. The landscape composition, already in terms of number of classes, class area, and number of patches, changes significantly among different classification schemes. Landscape complexity varies according to the class scheme considered and its underlying semantics, depending on how the different types aggregate or split when changing class scheme. Results confirm that the selection of a specific class scheme affects the spatial pattern of the derived landscapes and consequently the landscape metrics, especially at class level. Moreover, among the classification schemes considered, EUNIS seems to be the best choice for a comprehensive representation of both natural and anthropogenic classes.

Applications of nuclear magnetic resonance in paediatric surgery: magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography and new sequences.

The aim of the study was to evaluate fast magnetic resonance cholangio-pancreatography (MRCP) sequences as an alternative and safe investigation method for neonatal and children's pancreaticobiliary diseases. Between January 2000 and December 2000, five children (age: 1 month 14 years; mean: 7 years) affected by pancreaticobiliary diseases or already operated for biliary pathologies were studied. Patients were evaluated by 1.5 T magnet single shot T2-weighted sequences (1 image per s, TR = infinite, TE = 150-180 ms). T1-weighted conventional sequences were obtained to study parenchymal tissue. No patient needed general anaesthetic. Only in one case was sedation necessary. Fast MRCP sequences provided very precise information on biliary tract anatomy. They revealed the intra and extrahepatic bile ducts, the gallbladder, the common bile duct and the bilio-pancreatic junction in all cases investigated. MRCP allowed us to evaluate Roux-en-Y type bilio-enteric anastomosis as accurately as percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography (PTC). In addition MRCP was the only reliable study in evaluating Roux-en-Y type anastomosis where ultrasonography (US) and endoscopic retrograde cholangiography (ERCP) could not be used. In conclusion MRCP is an accurate and non-invasive method with which to investigate the anatomy of the pancreaticobiliary tract in children. It could become the investigation of choice after US in the case of biliary and pancreatic diseases.

CCR5 and CCR3 expression on T CD3+ lymphocytes from HIV/Leishmania co-infected subjects.

CC chemokine receptor 5 (CCR5) and CC chemokine receptor 3 (CCR3) are membrane-bound proteins involved in HIV-1 entry into susceptible cells. All T lymphocyte subsets display CCR5 and CCR3 on their membrane surface. T helper 1 cells are known to express CCR5 but not CCR3, and most of T cells expressing CCR3 are T helper 2. This study aimed to assess the expression of CCR5 and CCR3 on peripheral blood CD3+ T lymphocytes of HIV-Leishmania co-infected individuals. A total of 36 subjects were enrolled; nine had HIV-Leishmania co-infection; nine were HIV-infected without Leishmania, nine had visceral leishmaniasis without HIV co-infection and nine were healthy blood donors. HIV-Leishmania co-infected subjects showed a significantly higher rate of CCR5+CD3+ T lymphocytes in comparison with the other studied groups. The higher rate of CD3+ T-cells expressing CCR5 found in HIV-Leishmania co-infected subjects may be related to the role of Leishmania as an enhancer of the progression to AIDS.

Submassive acute pulmonary thromboembolism with normal D-dimer. A case report.

Pulmonary thromboembolism is a relatively common disease in an Emergency Department. Diagnosis, often difficult, is based on careful evaluation of risk factors, clinical examination, radiological and laboratory investigations. Plasma D-dimer, a degradation product of cross-linked fibrin with low specificity and very high sensibility, is considered extremely useful as screening to rule out a pulmonary thromboembolism. We report the case of a 74 year old woman who presented in the Emergency Department suffering from the sudden onset of dyspnea 4 hours before. Plasma D-dimer (automated latex-enhanced turbidimetric test) was normal (253 ng/mL; normal value: 278 ng/mL), but spiral CT angiography showed a sub-massive thromboembolism of the principal branch of the right pulmonary artery, also involving the middle and the inferior lobar branches. A cardiac echo-color-Doppler demonstrated an enlargement of the right cardiac section with telediastolic pressure in the pulmonary artery of 74 mmHg (normal value 4-12 mmHg). A second measurement of plasma D-dimer, 12 hours later, remained in the normal range (274 ng/mL) and only after four days was there a significant increase (1017 ng/mL). The authors, taking the case as a starting point, stigmatize the difficulties that such diagnosis involves, despite indications of guidelines.

Long-term evaluation of esophageal function in patients treated at birth for esophageal atresia.

Dysphagia, gastroesophageal reflux (GER) and esophageal metaplasia are reported with various incidence in the long term follow-up of patients treated at birth for esophageal atresia (EA). To evaluate the long term outcomes 26 patients treated at birth for EA with Tracheo Esophageal Fistula (TEF) were examined 8-28 (mean 15.8) years later by clinical evaluation, including barium meal, fiberoptic upper GI endoscopy, 24 hour ambulatory two-channel pH-monitoring and stationary esophageal manometry. 50% of patients complained of dysphagia. Mild esophagitis was found in 20% of patients but GER was detected in only 16.7% of the cases. By morphological X-ray, esophageal anomalies were detected in 31% of cases without significant functional relevance. Hundred percent of patients had a disorganized peristaltic esophageal activity and a low amplitude of the esophageal contractions was observed in 58% of them. In our series, esophageal dismotilty seems to be the main consequence of EA without any relevant disturbance of normal nutritional habit.

Intranasal heparin reduces eosinophil recruitment after nasal allergen challenge in patients with allergic rhinitis.

BACKGROUND: Recently, several studies have shown that heparin possesses various anti-inflammatory and antiallergic properties. It has been proposed that heparin might play an important role in limiting the inflammatory events associated with asthma and allergic rhinitis by neutralizing inflammatory mediators, such as eosinophil cationic protein and major basic protein, and by limiting eosinophil recruitment. OBJECTIVE: To test the hypothesis that heparin can limit the extent and magnitude of eosinophilic inflammation, we examined the effect of inhaled intranasal heparin on nasal response to allergen challenge in 10 patients with allergic rhinitis. METHODS: The capacity of heparin to reduce nasal response was studied by evaluating symptom score, eosinophil cationic protein concentration, and eosinophil counts in nasal lavage fluids 10, 60, and 360 minutes after allergen challenge. RESULTS: Pretreatment with intranasal heparin produced a significant reduction in symptom score 10 minutes after allergen challenge and reduced the eosinophil influx at each time point after antigen challenge, statistical significance being reached 60 and 360 minutes after allergen challenge. Similarly, the amount of eosinophil cationic protein in the nasal wash was reduced at each time point; this reached statistical significance 360 minutes after allergic challenge. CONCLUSION: Heparin was shown to provide protection with respect to nasal allergen challenge. The mechanism by which heparin produces its protective activity seems to be related to the neutralization of eosinophil cationic protein as well as to the reduction of eosinophil recruitment.

Normal human lung fibroblasts differently modulate interleukin-10 and interleukin-12 production by monocytes: implications for an altered immune response in pulmonary chronic inflammation.

The ability of lung fibroblasts to modulate the immune response has been evaluated by analyzing the synthesis and release of interleukin (IL)-10 and IL-12 by lipopolysaccharide (LPS)-stimulated peripheral blood monocytes exposed to pulmonary fibroblast conditioned medium (FCM). IL-10 and IL-12 contents and gene expression were markedly modified by treatment with FCM as measured by ELISA (+97.5 +/- 12.8% and -68 +/- 7.3% for IL-10 and IL-12, respectively), immunocytochemistry, and reverse transcriptase-polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR). These effects appeared to be mediated by prostaglandin E(2) (PGE(2)) as the modified release of both cytokines was reduced by treatment with indomethacin and mimicked by addition of exogenous PGE(2.) As a result of the enhanced production of IL-10, exposure of LPS/interferon (IFN)-gamma-activated monocytes to FCM was also able to reduce the expression of the class II major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecule, human leukocyte-associated antigen-DR (HLA-DR) (-51.8 +/- 8.7%) and of the costimulatory molecule, CD40 (-53.9 +/- 11.7%). The expression of both molecules was completely restored when monocytes were pretreated with a neutralizing anti-IL-10 monoclonal antibody. The FCM obtained from fibrotic lung fibroblasts was instead less efficacious in potentiating LPS-stimulated IL-10 release and, consequently, in reducing HLA-DR and CD40 expression, suggesting that an impairment of the immune regulation operated by fibroblasts may be involved in the maintenance of chronic pulmonary inflammation.

Expression of c-erbB receptors and ligands in human nasal epithelium.

BACKGROUND: The epidermal growth factor (EGF) family of growth factors plays an important role in maintenance and repair in a variety of epithelial tissues. However, very little is known about coexpression of these factors and their receptors, the c-erbB family of receptor tyrosine kinases, in human nasal epithelium. OBJECTIVE: We sought to investigate the expression of these molecules in cultured nasal epithelial cells and nasal mucosa from healthy individuals. METHODS: Identification of c-erbB receptors and their ligands was sought by using reverse transcription PCR, Western blotting, and immunohistochemistry. RESULTS: Messenger RNA encoding the EGF receptors (EGFR) c-erbB2 and c-erbB3, but not c-erbB4, was detected in primary cultures of human nasal epithelial cells. Transcripts encoding EGF, heparin-binding EGF, transforming growth factor (TGF) alpha, and amphiregulin were also detected. Receptor and ligand expression was confirmed by using immunocytochemical staining of the cells and Western blotting of the cell lysates. Immunohistochemical analysis of tissue sections obtained from biopsy specimens of nasal mucosa revealed intense membrane staining for the EGFR within the respiratory nasal epithelium, which was predominantly localized at the level of the columnar epithelial layers. Similar staining patterns were observed for c-erbB2 and c-erbB3 in the respiratory nasal epithelium. Evidence for EGF, transforming growth factor alpha, heparin-binding EGF, amphiregulin, and betacellulin immunostaining in the nasal epithelium was also obtained; their staining patterns paralleled that of EGFR immunostaining. CONCLUSION: Colocalization of c-erbB receptors and ligands establishes a basis on which to investigate c-erbB receptor- mediated effects in human nasal epithelium.

Different expression of TNF-alpha receptors and prostaglandin E(2 )Production in normal and fibrotic lung fibroblasts: potential implications for the evolution of the inflammatory process.

Normal human lung fibroblasts downregulate the production of tumor necrosis factor (TNF)-alpha by activated monocytes through the production of prostaglandin E(2) (PGE(2)), contributing to the local control of the inflammatory process. In this study, we provide evidence that fibroblasts derived from diseased tissue, such as fibrotic lung fibroblasts, exhibit different functional features compared with normal cells, with particular regard to their modulatory role. Indeed, fibrotic fibroblasts (FF) spontaneously produced less PGE(2) (3,300 +/- 410 pg/ml) compared with normal fibroblasts (NF) (7,500 +/- 270 pg/ml) and, as a consequence, they showed a reduced ability to downregulate the production of TNF-alpha by lipopolysaccharide (LPS)- activated monocytes. The percentage of inhibition induced by normal cells on the production of TNF-alpha by LPS-activated monocytes was 61 +/- 5.9%, whereas the inhibitory effect exerted by fibrotic cells was reduced to 32 +/- 4% (P < 0.01). We have also observed that the ability of TNF-alpha to induce PGE(2) was impaired in FF and was related to a reduced expression of cyclooxygenase 2. This was possibly due to the reduction of the expression of TNF receptors (TNFRs) in fibrotic cell lines compared with normal cell lines. Flow cytometry revealed that the mean fluorescence intensity (MFI) of both isoforms of TNFR was significantly lower in FF compared with NF. The MFI of TNFR1 was 3. 55 +/- 0.12 for NF and 1.78 +/- 0.35 for FF (P < 0.001). The MFI of TNFR2 was 1.95 +/- 0.27 for NF and 0.99 +/- 0.16 for FF (P < 0.01). The analysis of the effect of TNF-alpha on some functions associated with collagen metabolism in NF and FF showed an increase of the expression of the receptor for collagen type I (alpha(2)beta(1) integrin) in NF (42 +/- 10%) and an even larger increase in FF (102 +/- 23%) (P < 0.05). Interestingly, unlike NF, TNF-alpha failed to increase matrix metalloproteinase 1 levels in FF and did not cause any growth inhibition in these cells. The reduced capability of fibrotic cells to produce PGE(2) either spontaneously or after TNF-alpha treatment may lead to an unrestrained release of TNF-alpha from activated monocytes and, as a result of the reduced expression of TNFRs, to a different response of these cells to TNF-alpha. These changes may be important in the evolution of the inflammatory process, potentially contributing to its transformation into a chronic and self-perpetuating process.

[Reintervention in mitral valve prostheses. Analysis of risk factors]. / Reintervento su protesi valvolare mitralica. Analisi dei fattori di rischio.

From 1980 to 1996, 111 patients (83 females, 28 males, mean age 51.47 +/- 15.73 years, range 1-76) underwent mitral valve replacement. Seventy-five patients underwent replacement of a biological valve and 36 of a mechanical valve. Three patients underwent a third operation. Seventy prostheses were replaced because of a structural dysfunction. Other causes of valve failure were: 24 thrombosis (23 mechanical and 1 biological), 10 endocarditis (7 mechanical, 3 biological) and 4 leakages (3 mechanical and 1 biological). One patient who had recurrent anticoagulant-related haemorrhage underwent reoperation to replace his mechanical valve with a biological prosthesis. Two patients had their valve replaced because of mismatch between size of the valve and body surface area. Thirteen operations were performed on emergency and 29 on urgency. There were 22 in-hospital deaths with a hospital mortality of 19.82%. Fourteen deaths (63.63%) occurred in patients operated on emergency or urgency. All deceased patients were in NYHA functional class III or IV. Our data suggest that risk of reoperation on mitral prosthesis is highly influenced by the preoperative functional class. In spite of the fact that replacement of biological valves should be more elective than that of mechanical valves, we did not find any difference between the two groups of patients.

Bacterial translocation in the neonate.

Bacterial translocation has been a major topic of investigation for the past two decades. Despite recent evidence that bacterial translocation may play a significant role in the morbidity and mortality of adults faced with multiple types of stress, very little is known about the effect of bacterial translocation on the neonate. Recently more and more evidence has suggested that normal as well as premature or ill neonates experience spontaneous bacterial translocation quite commonly. This article reviews the recent literature on bacterial translocation in stressed adults, the development of an intact intestinal mucosal barrier in the newborn as a protection against bacterial translocation, and the role of spontaneous bacterial translocation in the development of systemic sepsis and its accompanying morbidity and mortality.

Prenatal diagnosis of gastrointestinal obstruction: a correlation between prenatal ultrasonic findings and postnatal operative findings.

The impact of prenatal sonographic diagnosis of oesophageal and gastrointestinal obstructions has been analysed over a 10-year period. Three groups of patients were evaluated. The first group consisted of 46 newborns with abnormal prenatal sonograms, 41 of which were confirmed to have intestinal obstruction postnatally. The second group consisted of 17 neonates with normal prenatal sonograms who had intestinal obstruction postnatally. The third group included 56 newborns who did not undergo a prenatal sonogram but who had intestinal obstruction confirmed at surgery. Polyhydramnios without the appearance of a stomach on ultrasound was diagnostic of pure oesophageal atresia. Polyhydramnios with intestinal dilation was diagnostic of intestinal obstruction. Although surgery was performed earlier in the infants diagnosed prenatally with ultrasound, mortality was no less than in the group that did not undergo a prenatal sonogram, probably because of the high incidence of associated anomalies.

[Clinical and pathological characteristics of carcinoma of the kidney: computerized analysis]. / Características clínicas y patológicas del carcinoma de riñón: análisis computerizado.

To evaluate the significance of the clinical and pathological features and survivorship data, we analyzed 203 cases of renal carcinoma who underwent surgery at our department from 1974 to 1988. Tumor stages P2 and P3 and grades G2 and G3 were the most frequent. The series is large enough to permit classification according to tumor stage and grade and most of the possible associations. The diagnostic procedure and the surgical technique were consistent. Radical nephrectomy via the transperitoneal approach was performed in 153 patients. Transpleural thoracophrenolaparotomy was performed in 22 patients with a very large tumor mass in the upper pole. Extended classical nephrectomy via the lumbar approach was performed in 27 patients. Computer-assisted analysis of the clinical and pathological data showed tumor stage to be an important prognostic factor. Given a similar situation for tumor stage, the histologic grade has been shown to influence prognosis significantly. Other clinical or pathological parameters such as pseudocapsule, histological type and paraneoplastic biological and humoral changes often correlated with tumor stage or grade. Clinical staging is a point of reference for surgery. However, detection of microfoci of tumor metastasis that might be responsible for late reactivation of the disease is as yet not possible.

Increased sodium requirement following early postnatal surgical correction of congenital uropathies in infants.

Serum electrolyte equilibrium and plasma aldosterone concentrations were monitored in 19 infants who had severe obstructive uropathy or grade 5 vesico-ureteral reflux and were undergoing surgical correction in the first 2 months of life. Before surgery high plasma aldosterone levels were observed in 8 patients, but serum sodium and potassium concentrations were normal. Plasma concentrations of aldosterone were elevated in all patients during the week following surgery and 7 patients developed severe hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia and weight loss despite very high plasma aldosterone concentrations. As a consequence 5 infants were infused with sodium chloride (4 mEq/kg per day) before and for 36 h after surgery; this prevented metabolic imbalance. We conclude that infants undergoing surgical correction of uropathies may require a high sodium intake to maintain electrolyte balance and adequate growth.