Course of colonization by multidrug-resistant organisms after allogeneic hematopoietic cell transplantation.

Multidrug-resistant organisms (MDRO) have been developing as an emerging problem in allogeneic hematopoietic cell transplantation (HCT). Since no data are available on the course of MDRO colonization after HCT, we investigated in this retrospective, single-center study, persistence and clearance of MDRO after HCT. From June 2010 to December 2015, 121 consecutive HCT patients were included. Patients received a MDRO screening before conditioning as well as surveillance cultures after HCT. In MDRO-colonized patients, surveillance specimens were taken until MDRO were no longer detectable. Thirty-three patients (27%) were found to be colonized by at least one MDRO at any time point until day 100 post HCT. Day 100 (2-year) non-relapse mortality (NRM) and overall survival (OS) of MDRO-colonized (MDRO+) versus non-colonized (MDRO-) patients were essentially the same. NRM is 15% (21%) versus 15% (24%). Two-year OS is 60 versus 55% for MDRO+ versus MDRO- patients. Out of the 33 MDRO+ patients, 21 cleared the MDRO. Median time to non-detectability of MDRO was 6 months. In 12 patients, the MDRO persisted. There was a significant (p < 0.0001) survival difference between patients who cleared the MDRO versus those with MDRO persistence (2-year OS 80 vs 40%). Except for the length of antibiotic therapy as a potential risk factor for MDRO persistence after HCT, no other conventional factors could be identified. (a) colonization by MDRO per se had no negative impact on the outcome, (b) MDRO can be cleared by the majority of patients after allogeneic HCT, and (c) to increase the probability to clear MDRO, the use of antibiotics in MDRO+ patients should be reviewed critically.

Allogeneic hematopoietic cell transplantation without fluconazole and fluoroquinolone prophylaxis.

Fluoroquinolone (FQ) and fluconazole prophylaxis is recommended for patients undergoing allogeneic hematopoietic cell transplantation (alloHCT). However, due to an uncertain scientific basis and the increasing emergence of resistant germs, this policy should be questioned. Therefore, FQ and fluconazole prophylaxis was omitted in alloHCT at our center. In this retrospective analysis, all consecutive patients (n = 63) who underwent first alloHCT at our institution from September 2010 to September 2013 were included. Patients neither received FQ nor fluconazole prophylaxis. Day 100 mortality, incidence of febrile neutropenia, bacterial infections, and invasive fungal diseases (IFD) were assessed. Sixteen patients who started conditioning under antimicrobial treatment/prophylaxis due to pre-existing neutropenia (3/16), IFD (12/16), or aortic valve replacement (1/16) were excluded from the analysis. Finally, 47 patients were transplanted without prophylaxis as intended. Day 100 mortality was 9 %. Febrile neutropenia occurred in 62 % (29/47); 17/47 patients (36 %) experienced a blood stream infection (BSI) with detection of Gram-positive bacteria in 14 patients, Gram-negative bacteria in five patients, and candida in one patient, respectively. Coagulase-negative staphylococci were the most frequently isolated Gram-positive bacteria; 12/21 isolated Gram-positive and 3/6 Gram-negative bacteria were FQ resistant. In 21 % (10/47) of the patients, IFD (1x proven, 1x probable, and 8x possible) were diagnosed. To conclude, all three criteria, day 100 mortality, the incidence of IFD, and BSI, are in the range of published data for patients transplanted with FQ and fluconazole prophylaxis. These data demonstrate that alloHCT is feasible without FQ and fluconazole prophylaxis.

[Retrospective analysis of routine-MRI and correlation with aetiology of dementia, severity and neuropsychology in a memory-clinic population]. / Retrospektive Analyse der MRT-Routinebefunde und Korrelation mit Demenzätiologie, Schweregrad und neuropsychologischen Befunden von Patienten aus einer universitären Gedächtnisambulanz.

BACKGROUND: The contribution of potential treatable dementia aetiologies diagnosed using cerebral imaging varied considerably in previous studies and was not evaluated in a recent larger German sample of patients from a memory clinic. MATERIAL AND METHODS: MRI images of 502 patients were retrospectively reassessed. Beside the proportion of potentially treatable dementia aetiology, the extent of whole brain atrophy (semiquantitative) and vascular white matter lesions were assessed. RESULTS: Mean age of the patients was 63.7 ± 13.1 years; 49 % were female, mean MMST was 24.2 ± 5.5. In 74 % there was an agreement between the clinical dementia syndrome and MRI. 9 % (45 patients) had clearly discrepant imaging results, according to MRI criteria (21 × ischaemia, 20 × normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH), 4 × intracerebral haemorrhage). These patients could not not be differentiated using age and MMST alone as clinical criteria. There was a significant correlation between global brain atrophy and MMST (r = -0.32; p < 0.001) and white matter lesion score (r = 0.28; p < 0.001). CONCLUSION: In 9 % there was a clear discrepancy between MRI results and the clinical syndrome diagnosis in memory-clinic patients. As known from earlier studies and current German 3 rd generation guidelines, it is reasonable to perform MRI imaging in dementia to improve the aetiological and differential diagnoses and to detect a different aetiology that can be missed using the clinical dementia criteria alone.

Time perception in patients with major depressive disorder during vagus nerve stimulation.

BACKGROUND: Affective disorders may affect patients' time perception. Several studies have described time as a function of the frontal lobe. The activating eff ects of vagus nerve stimulation on the frontal lobe might also modulate time perception in patients with major depressive disorder (MDD). METHODS: Time perception was investigated in 30 patients with MDD and in 7 patients with therapy-resistant MDD. In these 7 patients, a VNS system was implanted and time perception was assessed before and during stimulation. A time estimation task in which patients were asked "How many seconds have passed?" tested time perception at 4 defined time points (34 s, 77 s, 192 s and 230 s). The differences between the estimated and actual durations were calculated and used for subsequent analysis. RESULTS: Patients with MDD and healthy controls estimated the set time points relatively accurately. A general linear model revealed a significant main eff ect of group but not of age or sex. The passing of time was perceived as significantly slower in patients undergoing VNS compared to patients with MDD at all time points (T34: t = − 4.2; df = 35; p < 0.001; T77: t = − 4.8; df = 35; p < 0.001; T192: t = − 2.0; df = 35; p = 0.059; T230 t = −2.2; df = 35; p = 0.039) as well as compared to healthy controls (at only T77: t = 4.1; df = 35; p < 0.001). There were no differences in time perception with regard to age, sex or polarity of depression (uni- or bipolar). CONCLUSIONS: VNS is capable of changing the perception of time. This discovery furthers the basic research on circadian rhythms in patients with psychiatric disorders.

[The patient in the psychiatric emergency ambulance: diagnoses, reasons and comparison of layperson vs. physician viewpoints]. / Der Patient in der psychiatrischen Notambulanz: Erstdiagnosen, Vorstellungsgründe und Vergleich der Laien- vs. Arztsicht.

A survey in specialties other than psychiatry showed that "emergency room"-patients have factors other than the presenting disease that determine the usage of urgent medical evaluation. In the following prospective study 104 outpatients presenting at daytime in a university psychiatric emergency care unit were included over 6 months. Apart from social and epidemiological data, illnesses according to ICD-10, reason for presentation from the patient's point of view and in this regard the physician's evaluation were included. The most prevalent diagnoses were depression, adjustment disorders and anxiety disorders, comprising together 75 %. Organic disorders or addictive disorders were less frequent; psychoses were found in 8 %. Concerning the presentation as an emergency, 70 % of patients reported a subjective clinical deterioration but only 44 % were regarded as an urgent need in the responsible physician's point of view (Cohen's kappa 0.39). Our findings show that patients presenting as "psychiatric emergency cases" without appointment mainly suffer from depression, adjustment disorders and panic disorders. Furthermore, the layperson's point of view of clinical deterioration justifying an emergency presentation differs from physician's evaluation. The most likely cause for this disagreement between physicians and patients in the assessment to utilise a medical emergency care service in psychiatry might be dysfunctional or, respectively, negative-biased cognitions accompanying depressive syndromes.

[Assessment of possible drug-drug interactions in psychopharmacotherapy after hospital discharge using an interactive database]. / Datenbankgestützte Prüfung von möglichen Psychopharmakainteraktionen nach Entlassung aus stationärem Aufenthalt.

INTRODUCTION: Psychiatry is confronted with increasing requirements in quality management, guidelines and an increasing proportion of elderly, chronic multimorbid patients with psychiatric disorders. The latter give rise to polypharmacy which may lead to drug-drug interactions. Assessment of drug interactions is more and more difficult as the total number of drugs taken increases. In the present study hospital discharge medication was analysed semiautomatically for possible drug-drug interactions. METHODS: In-hospital cases were randomly selected. Discharge medication was analysed using PsiacOnline, a large web-based database for drug interactions. RESULTS: The selection yielded 342 cases from 213 patients (mean age 46.3 years, 53 % females). 86 patients had one psychiatric diagnosis; the other patients had at least two or more diagnoses. The discharge prescription was analysed for 55 different psychotropic drugs from 4 large drug groups (18 antidepressants; 17 antipsychotic drugs; 5 mood stabilisers/epileptic drugs and 13 different hypnotic/anxiolytic drugs). Antipsychotic drugs were the most frequent drugs (n = 334); followed by antidepressants (n = 312) and mood stabilizers (n = 112). 47 patients (13.7 %) were discharged with monotherapy. Mean drug number was 2.7. PsiacOnline revealed 535 hits: 126 (23.6 %) combinations were non-critical, 86 (16.1 %) combinations were critical based on pharmacological properties of the drugs; 232 (43.4 %) combinations were critical according to in vitro studies or animal experiments; critical drug combinations in high-risk patients: 67 × (12.5 %); combinations with reported risks for side effects due to interaction: 17 × (3.2 %) and combinations with documented risks for severe drug interactions: 7 × (1.3 %). CONCLUSION: Although the majority of drug combinations was considered not critical, approximately 3 % of cases had an increased risk for adverse drug actions and a further 1.3 % cases with a severe risk gave evidence that integration of an IT-based pharmacological expert system in a computerised physician order entry (CPOE) should be considered. Suggested beneficial effects need to be shown by an appropriately-designed clinical study.

Analysis of genomic breakpoints in p190 and p210 BCR-ABL indicate distinct mechanisms of formation.

We sought to understand the genesis of the t(9;22) by characterizing genomic breakpoints in chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) and BCR-ABL-positive acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL). BCR-ABL breakpoints were identified in p190 ALL (n=25), p210 ALL (n=25) and p210 CML (n=32); reciprocal breakpoints were identified in 54 cases. No evidence for significant clustering and no association with sequence motifs was found except for a breakpoint deficit in repeat regions within BCR for p210 cases. Comparison of reciprocal breakpoints, however, showed differences in the patterns of deletion/insertions between p190 and p210. To explore the possibility that recombinase-activating gene (RAG) activity might be involved in ALL, we performed extra-chromosomal recombination assays for cases with breakpoints close to potential cryptic recombination signal sequence (cRSS) sites. Of 13 ALL cases tested, 1/10 with p190 and 1/3 with p210 precisely recapitulated the forward BCR-ABL breakpoint and 1/10 with p190 precisely recapitulated the reciprocal breakpoint. In contrast, neither of the p210 CMLs tested showed functional cRSSs. Thus, although the t(9;22) does not arise from aberrant variable (V), joining (J) and diversity (D) (V(D)J) recombination, our data suggest that in a subset of ALL cases RAG might create one of the initiating double-strand breaks.

[Improvement of CME questions from Der Nervenarzt]. / Verbesserung der formal-didaktischen Qualität der CME-Fragen aus Der Nervenarzt.

BACKGROUND: Multiple choice questions play an important role in training and continuing education. Der Nervenarzt has been publishing articles for continuing medical education (CME) since 2002 which usually have ten multiple choice questions. Studies from other fields have shown that CME questions are often formulated awkwardly from a didactic standpoint. In this study we analyzed the CME questions contained in Der Nervenarzt to assess their instructional quality. MATERIALS AND METHODS: The standardized evaluation was performed by semiskilled nonprofessionals. The setup permitted differentiation of 15 known quality criteria for multiple choice questions from the educational medical literature. RESULTS: Of the 796 questions studied that had been posed in 2002-2008 (370 neurology, 346 psychiatry, and 80 interdisciplinary), 518 questions had an awkward construction for didactic purposes. A negative wording of the stem, followed by unintentional cues and obsolete combination formats were most frequently observed. The proportion of precisely phrased questions has increased significantly since 2006. CONCLUSION: The CME questions in the German medical journal Der Nervenarzt have improved regarding their instructional quality since the beginning of the program.

Imatinib sensitivity as a consequence of a CSF1R-Y571D mutation and CSF1/CSF1R signaling abnormalities in the cell line GDM1.

Imatinib is usually a highly effective treatment for myeloproliferative neoplasms (MPNs) associated with ABL, PDGFRA or PDGFRB gene fusions; however, occasional imatinib-responsive patients have been reported without abnormalities of these genes. To identify novel imatinib-sensitive lesions, we screened 11 BCR-ABL-negative cell lines and identified GDM1, derived from a patient with an atypical MPN (aMPN), as being responsive to imatinib. Screening of genes encoding known imatinib targets revealed an exon 12 mutation in the colony-stimulating factor 1 receptor (CSF1R; c-FMS) with a predicted Y571D amino-acid substitution. CSF1R in GDM1 was constitutively phosphorylated, but rapidly dephosphorylated on exposure to imatinib. Y571D did not transform FDCP1 cells to growth factor independence, but resulted in a significantly increased colony growth compared with controls, constitutive CSF1R phosphorylation and elevated CSF1R signaling. We found that GDM1 expresses CSF1, and CSF1 neutralization partially inhibited proliferation, suggesting the importance of both autocrine and intrinsic mechanisms of CSF1R activation. An extensive screen of CSF1R in aMPNs and acute myeloid leukemia identified three additional novel missense variants. None of these variants were active in transformation assays and are therefore likely to be previously unreported rare polymorphisms or non-pathogenic passenger mutations.

The severity of FIP1L1-PDGFRA-positive chronic eosinophilic leukaemia is associated with polymorphic variation at the IL5RA locus.

We have investigated the hypothesis that constitutional genetic variation in IL-5 signalling may be associated with the development or severity of FIP1L1-PDGFRA-positive chronic eosinophilic leukaemia (CEL) in humans. We genotyped six single-nucleotide polymorphisms (SNP) within or close to the IL5RA or IL5 genes in 82 patients with FIP1L1-PDGFRA-positive CEL plus, as controls, healthy individuals (n=100), patients with FIP1L1-PDGFRA-negative eosinophilia (n=100) or patients with chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) (n=100). We found no association between SNP allele frequency between FIP1L1-PDGFRA-positive and control cases. However, for FIP1L1-PDGFRA cases, we found an association between the genotype at rs4054760, an SNP in the 5'-UTR of IL5RA and peripheral blood eosinophil count (P=0.026) as well as the presence or absence of tissue infiltration (P=0.032). Although these associations fell below the level of significance once corrected for multiple testing, no such association was seen in FIP1L1-PDGFRA-negative cases and no difference in allele frequencies for rs4054760 was seen in control populations across Europe. Furthermore, in an analysis of 112 patients with CML, IL5RA expression was strongly related to rs4054760 genotype (P<0.001). These data suggest that the variations in IL5RA expression are linked to constitutional IL5RA genotype and severity of FIP1L1-PDGFRA disease.

Capecitabine in combination with mitomycin C in patients with gastrointestinal cancer: results of an extended multicentre phase-I trial.

The aim of this study was to determine the dose-limiting toxicity (DLT) and establish the recommended dose for mitomycin C added every 3 weeks to the standard combination dose of capecitabine. Cohorts of at least three patients with pretreated gastrointestinal carcinoma received capecitabine 1000 mg m(-2) orally twice daily on days 1-14 plus i.v. bolus mitomycin C on day 1 at doses of 4, 6, 8 or 10 mg m(-2) (corresponding to dose levels I-IV). Cycles were repeated every 3 weeks. Two treatment cycles were considered for the evaluation of DLTs. Of the 53 patients enrolled, the majority had colorectal (n=27) or gastric (n=14) cancers. Patients had received a median of two lines of prior chemotherapy (34% with >/=3 lines and 87% with prior 5-FU-based therapy). At the recommended dose level (IV, n=30), grade 3 adverse events during cycles 1 and 2 were: anaemia (10%); leukopenia (3%); thrombocytopenia (3%); stomatitis/mucositis (3%); hand-foot syndrome (3%). Two patients experienced DLTs (mucositis, n=1; neutropenic fever, n=1), but there were no grade 4 events. The median dose intensity for capecitabine and mitomycin C was 100% during cycles 1 and 2 and only four patients required postponement of therapy. Of the 43 patients evaluable for efficacy, seven achieved partial and minor remissions (16%; 95% CI, 5-28%), and 12 patients (28%) had stable disease. The favourable safety profile and promising activity of the capecitabine/mitomycin C combination, even in heavily pretreated patients, warrant further evaluation in patients with advanced colorectal and gastric cancers.

Pegylated liposomal doxorubicin in combination with mitomycin C, infusional 5-fluorouracil and sodium folinic acid. A phase-I-study in patients with upper gastrointestinal cancer.

Mitomycin C (MMC) in combination with infusional 5-fluorouracil (FU) plus folinic acid (FA) is an effective treatment for metastatic gastrointestinal cancer. Anthracyclines are commonly used in the treatment of upper gastrointestinal cancer. The aim of this study was to determine the maximum tolerated dose of liposomal, pegylated doxorubicin (Caelyx) in combination with infusional 5-FU/sodium FA and MMC. Escalating doses of Caelyx (15-25-30-35 mg m(-2) corresponding to dose levels I-IV) were applied on days 1 and 29, given to fixed doses of 24-h 5-FU (2000 mg m(-2)) and sodium FA (500 mg m(-2), mixed with 5-FU in one pump) weekly for 6 weeks, and MMC 7 mg m(-2) on days 8 and 36. At least three patients were treated at each dose level. A total of 25 patients are evaluable. No dose-limiting toxicity (DLT) was observed on level I (n=3). On level II, DLT occurred in three out of five patients (mucositis and leucopenia). Owing to the early DLTs at this dose, we added a 20 mg m(-2) Caelyx dose level (Ia). In total, 17 patients were treated at this dose level. Among these, only two patients experienced DLT in cycle one and 37 complete cycles have been administered in association with a low toxicity profile. The median dose intensity was 100% for each drug during the first course and no treatment delay exceeding 7 days was required. The recommended dose of 4-weekly Caelyx in combination with weekly 24-h 5-FU/sodium FA and 4-weekly MMC is 20 mg m(-2). Preliminary antitumour activity has been observed in patients with pretreated pancreatic cancer and in untreated gastric cancer.

Dynamics of BCR-ABL mRNA expression in first-line therapy of chronic myelogenous leukemia patients with imatinib or interferon alpha/ara-C.

We sought to determine dynamics of BCR-ABL mRNA expression levels in 139 patients with chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) in early chronic phase, randomized to receive imatinib (n=69) or interferon (IFN)/Ara-C (n=70). The response was sequentially monitored by cytogenetics from bone marrow metaphases (n=803) and qualitative and quantitative RT-PCR from peripheral blood samples (n=1117). Complete cytogenetic response (CCR) was achieved in 60 (imatinib, 87%) vs 10 patients (IFN/Ara-C, 14%) after a median observation time of 24 months. Within the first year after CCR, best median ratio BCR-ABL/ABL was 0.087%, (imatinib, n=48) vs 0.27% (IFN/Ara-C, n=9, P=0.025). BCR-ABL was undetectable in 25 cases by real-time PCR, but in only four patients by nested PCR. Median best response in patients with relapse after CCR was 0.24% (n=3) as compared to 0.029% in patients with continuous remission (n=52, P=0.029). We conclude that (i) treatment with imatinib in newly diagnosed CML patients is associated with a rapid decrease of BCR-ABL transcript levels; (ii) nested PCR may reveal residual BCR-ABL transcripts in samples that are negative by real-time PCR; (iii) BCR-ABL transcript levels parallel cytogenetic response, and (iv) imatinib is superior to IFN/Ara-C in terms of the speed and degree of molecular responses, but residual disease is rarely eliminated.

Molecular monitoring of response to imatinib (Glivec) in CML patients pretreated with interferon alpha. Low levels of residual disease are associated with continuous remission.

A significant proportion of chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) patients achieve a major cytogenetic remission (MCR) to imatinib therapy after failing interferon (IFN) alpha-based protocols. We sought to determine levels of residual disease in patients with MCR using various molecular methods and to establish a relation between residual BCR-ABL transcript levels and rate of relapse in complete cytogenetic remission (CCR). Response was measured by conventional cytogenetic analysis, hypermetaphase and interphase fluorescence in situ hybridization (HM-FISH, IP-FISH) of bone marrow (BM) cells, qualitative nested and quantitative reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) for BCR-ABL transcripts. We investigated 323 peripheral blood (PB) and BM samples from 48 CML patients who achieved a complete (Ph+ 0%; n=41) or partial (Ph+ 1-34%; n=7) cytogenetic remission after 3-20 months of imatinib therapy. Prior to imatinib, 35 patients were in chronic phase (CP), eight in accelerated phase (AP), four in myeloid and one in lymphoid blast crisis. HM-FISH results correlated with ratios BCR-ABL/ABL in PB and BM. In patients with CCR, residual disease was detectable by HM-FISH (31%), IP-FISH (18%), and RT-PCR (100%). During follow-up, BCR-ABL became undetectable in two patients (one CP, one AP) by both nested and quantitative RT-PCR. CCR is ongoing in 30 evaluable patients, 11 patients have relapsed. At the time of best response, median ratios BCR-ABL/ABL were 2.1% (range 0.82-7.8) in patients with subsequent relapse and 0.075% (range 0-3.9) in patients with ongoing remission (P=0.0011). All 16 CP patients, who achieved ratios BCR-ABL/ABL <0.1% as best molecular response are in continuous remission, while 6/13 patients (46%) with ratios >/=0.1% have relapsed (P=0.0036). We conclude that: (i) in patients with CCR to imatinib, HM-FISH and RT-PCR usually reveal residual BCR-ABL+ cells; (ii) RT-PCR results derived from PB and BM are comparable in CP CML; and (iii) low levels of residual disease with ratios BCR-ABL/ABL &<0.1% are associated with continuous remission.

Improvement of molecular monitoring of residual disease in leukemias by bedside RNA stabilization.

The sensitivity of assays designed to monitor minimal residual disease (MRD) by RT-PCR in leukemia depend on quality and quantity of RNA derived from peripheral blood (PB) and bone marrow (BM) leukocytes. Shipment of material may lead to RNA degradation resulting in a loss of sensitivity and, potentially, false negative results. Furthermore, degradation may lead to inaccurate estimates of MRD in positive specimens. We sought to determine feasibility and efficacy of a novel blood collection and processing system which is based on integrated RNA stabilization at the time of phlebotomy (PAXgene Blood RNA Kit) by comparison with standard methods of RNA extraction (cesium chloride gradient ultracentrifugation and RNeasy Mini Kit) using unstabilized EDTA anticoagulated PB. In 26 patients with chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) on therapy, PB was processed after a storage time at room temperature of 2 and 72 h according to these protocols. BCR-ABL, total ABL and glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) mRNA transcripts of PB samples were quantified as a measure for response to therapy and RNA integrity. RNA yield expressed as the ratio of ABL transcripts after a storage time of 72 h/ABL transcripts after a storage time of 2 h at room temperature was significantly higher with the stabilizing method (median 0.40) compared to the RNeasy method using unstabilized PB (median 0.13, P = 0.01). Furthermore, ratios BCR-ABL/ABL after 72 vs 2 h still correlated well using the PAXgene method (r = 0.99, P < 0.0001) in contrast to the standard method which did not (r = 0.65, P = 0.03). Even investigation of complete cytogenetic responders with very low tumor burden showed a good correlation of ratios BCR-ABL/ABL compared to the reference method. Comparable results were achieved using G6PD transcripts as standard. We conclude that the new PAXgene stabilization method could improve RNA quality and the comparability of molecular monitoring within and between multicenter trials.

Molecular and chromosomal mechanisms of resistance to imatinib (STI571) therapy.

Selective inhibition of the BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase by imatinib (STI571, Glivec/Gleevec) is a promising new therapeutic strategy in patients with chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML). Despite significant hematologic and cytogenetic responses, resistance occurs, particularly in patients with advanced disease. We sought to determine the underlying mechanisms. Sixty-six patients with CML in myeloid blast crisis (n = 33), lymphoid blast crisis (n = 2), accelerated phase (n = 16), chronic phase (n = 13), and BCR-ABL-positive acute lymphoblastic leukemia (n = 2) resistant to imatinib were investigated. Median duration of imatinib therapy was 148 days (range 6-882). Patients were evaluated for genomic amplification of BCR-ABL, overexpression of BCR-ABL transcripts, clonal karyotypic evolution, and mutations of the imatinib binding site in the BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase domain. Results were as follows: (1) Median levels of BCR-ABL transcripts, were not significantly changed at the time of resistance but 7/55 patients showed a >10-fold increase in BCR-ABL levels; (2) genomic amplification of BCR-ABL was found in 2/32 patients evaluated by fluorescence in situ hybridization; (3) additional chromosomal aberrations were observed in 19/36 patients; (4) point mutations of the ABL tyrosine kinase domain resulting in reactivation of the BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase were detected in 23/66 patients. In conclusion, although the heterogeneous development of imatinib resistance is challenging, the fact that BCR-ABL is active in many resistant patients suggests that the chimeric oncoprotein remains a good therapeutic target. However, patients with clonal evolution are more likely to have BCR-ABL-independent mechanisms of resistance. The observations warrant trials combining imatinib with other agents.

Early reduction of BCR-ABL mRNA transcript levels predicts cytogenetic response in chronic phase CML patients treated with imatinib after failure of interferon alpha.

The degree of tumor load reduction as measured by cytogenetic response is an important prognostic factor for chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) patients on therapy. We sought to determine whether BCR-ABL transcript levels can predict chromosomal response. Residual disease was evaluated in 120 CML patients in chronic phase (CP) treated with the selective tyrosine kinase inhibitor imatinib after resistance or intolerance to interferon alpha (IFN). Median time of therapy was 401 days (range 111-704). BCR-ABL and total ABL transcripts were measured in 486 peripheral blood (PB) specimens with a real time RT-PCR approach using fluorescent-labeled hybridization probes (LightCycler technology) and results were expressed as the ratio BCR-ABL/ABL. Cytogenetic response was determined in 3-monthly intervals: From 101 evaluable patients, 42 achieved a complete (CR, 0% Philadelphia chromosome (Ph)- positive metaphases), 18 a partial (PR, 1-34% Ph+), 13 a minor (MR, 35-94% Ph+), and 26 no response (NR, >94% Ph+). All PB samples were RT-PCR positive. The proportion of Ph+ metaphases and simultaneous BCR-ABL/ABL ratios correlated with r = 0.74, P < 0.0001. In order to investigate whether early molecular analysis may predict cytogenetic response, quantitative RT-PCR data obtained after 1 and 2 months of therapy were compared with cytogenetic response at 6 months. BCR-ABL/ABL ratios after 1 month were not predictive, but results after 2 months correlated with the consecutive cytogenetic response (P = 0.0008). The probability for a major cytogenetic response was significantly higher in patients with a BCR-ABL/ABL ratio <20% after 2 months of imatinib therapy. We conclude that: (1) quantitative determination of residual disease with real time RT-PCR is a reliable and sensitive method to monitor CML patients on imatinib therapy; (2) BCR-ABL/ABL ratios correlate well with cytogenetic response; (3) in IFN-pretreated patients all complete responders to imatinib have evidence of residual disease with the limited follow-up available; and (4) cytogenetic response at 6 months of therapy in CP patients is predictable with real time RT-PCR at 2 months.

Safety and efficacy of STI-571 (imatinib mesylate) in patients with bcr/abl-positive chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) after autologous peripheral blood stem cell transplantation (PBSCT).

We examined safety and efficacy of STI-571 in 24 bcr/abl-positive patients with CML post PBSCT. At start of STI-571 therapy, nine patients presented in blast crisis (BC) or in accelerated phase (AP), and 15 in chronic phase (CP). Patients were evaluated for hematologic, cytogenetic and molecular response, survival and toxicity. In general, STI-571 was well tolerated in this heavily pretreated group of patients with a non-hematologic and hematologic toxicity profile similar to that observed in a previous phase I trial at comparable doses. Five of nine patients with CML in transformation (AP, BC) were evaluable for hematologic response. Two of five patients had transient reductions in WBC and blasts, and three patients achieved a sustained hematologic response (>4 weeks). Cytogenetic analysis in these patients revealed numerical and/or structural responses. In CML chronic phase, STI-571 induced complete hematologic responses in all patients and major cytogenetic responses in 61% of patients with a complete cytogenetic response rate of 46%. This report indicates that STI-571 is a safe and effective drug in heavily pretreated patients. No apparent additional side-effects were noted in this patient cohort. The high rate of complete hematologic and complete cytogenetic responses in CP patients is remarkable, as intensive treatment approaches plus IFN-alpha failed to be efficient in achieving long-term stabilization of CML in this patient cohort.

[Selective inhibition of tyrosine kinases - a new therapeutic principle in oncology]. / Selektive Hemmung von Tyrosinkinasen als neues therapeutisches Prinzip in der Onkologie.

Tyrosine kinases are enzymes that regulate mitosis, differentiation, migration, neovascularization, and apoptosis. Their spectrum and association with specific malignancies offer multiple targets for therapeutic intervention. Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) represents an ideal target for a therapy using a selective inhibitor of the BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase. The 2-phenylpyrimidine derivative STI571 was rationally designed to inhibit ABL and BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase activities through competitive ATP-binding pocket interactions. Phase II data demonstrate hematologic and cytogenetic responses in interferon refractory chronic-phase, accelerated-phase and blast crisis patients. However, long-term observation is needed to confirm that response data result in prolongation of survival. STI571 is being studied in other malignancies, including leukemias characterized by expression of alternate molecular forms of BCR-ABL and those expressing protein tyrosine kinases with ATP-binding pockets structurally similar to ABL, e.g. c-kit and PDGF-R. Gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST) cells overexpress the stem cell factor receptor CD117, the product of the proto-oncogene c-kit. Inhibition of c-kit in vivo results in an immediate metabolic change of the tumor cells, detectable by positron emission tomography. Since c-kit overexpression is inhibited in small-cell lung cancer cell lines, a study with STI571 as second-line therapy of c-kit-positive small-cell lung cancer is in progress. Clinical studies are ongoing in malignancies associated with an enhanced activity of the PDGF-R, such as highgrade glioma, prostate cancer and leukemias with rearrangements of PDGF-R. The development of selective tyrosine kinase inhibitors is considered a promising approach for the design of new drugs. Clinical responses to STI571 in various malignancies may stimulate greater interest in the clinical use of tyrosine kinase inhibitors.