Perinatal outcomes among young donor oocyte recipients.

STUDY QUESTION: Is the use of donor oocytes in women <35 years of age associated with an increased risk of adverse perinatal outcomes compared to use of autologous oocytes? SUMMARY ANSWER: Among fresh assisted reproductive technology (ART) cycles performed in women under age 35, donor oocyte use is associated with a higher risk of preterm birth, low birth weight and stillbirth (when zero embryos were cryopreserved) as compared to autologous oocytes. WHAT IS KNOWN ALREADY: Previous studies demonstrated elevated risk of poor perinatal outcomes with donor versus autologous oocytes during ART, primarily among older women. STUDY DESIGN, SIZE, DURATION: Retrospective cohort study using data reported to Centers for Disease Control and Prevention's National ART Surveillance System (NASS) during the period from 2010 to 2015 in order to best reflect advances in clinical practice. Approximately 98% of all US ART cycles are reported to NASS, and discrepancy rates were <6% for all fields evaluated in 2015. PARTICIPANTS/MATERIALS, SETTING, METHODS: We included all non-banking fresh and frozen ART cycles performed between 2010 and 2015 in women under age 35 using autologous or donor eggs. Cycles using cryopreserved eggs, donated embryos or a gestational carrier were excluded. Among fresh embryo transfer cycles, we calculated predicted marginal proportions to estimate the unadjusted and adjusted risk ratios (aRRs) and 95% confidence intervals (CIs) for the association between donor versus autologous oocyte use and stillbirth, spontaneous abortion, preterm delivery and low birth weight among singleton pregnancies or births. Stillbirth models were stratified by number of embryos cryopreserved. All models were adjusted for patient and treatment characteristics. MAIN RESULTS AND THE ROLE OF CHANCE: Among the 71 720 singleton pregnancies occurring during 2010-2015, singletons resulting from donor oocytes were more likely to be preterm (15.6% versus 11.0%; aRRs 1.39: CI 1.20-1.61) and have low birth weight (11.8% versus 8.8%; aRRs 1.34; CI 1.16-1.55) than those resulting from autologous oocytes. With zero embryos cryopreserved, donor versus autologous oocyte use was associated with increased risk for stillbirth (2.1% versus 0.6%; aRRs 3.73; CI 1.96-7.11); no association with stillbirth was found when ≥1 embryo was cryopreserved (0.54% versus 0.56%; aRR 1.15; CI 0.59-2.25). LIMITATIONS, REASONS FOR CAUTION: The data come from a national surveillance system and is thus limited by the accuracy of the data entered by individual providers and clinics. There may be unmeasured differences between women using donor eggs versus their own eggs that could be contributing to the reported associations. Given the large sample size, statistically significant findings may not reflect clinically important variations. WIDER IMPLICATIONS OF THE FINDINGS: Risks of preterm birth, low birth weight and stillbirth among singleton pregnancies using donor oocytes were increased compared to those using autologous oocytes. Further study regarding the pathophysiology of the potentially increased risks among donor oocyte recipient pregnancy is warranted. STUDY FUNDING/COMPETING INTEREST(S): None. TRIAL REGISTRATION NUMBER: N/A.

Intramedullary spinal cord metastases: prognostic value of MRI and clinical features from a 13-year institutional case series.

BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE: In patients with intramedullary spinal cord metastases, the impact of MR imaging and clinical characteristics on survival has not been elucidated. Our aim was to identify MR imaging and clinical features with prognostic value among patients with intramedullary spinal cord metastases from a large retrospective series. MATERIALS AND METHODS: The relevant MR imaging examination and baseline clinical data for each patient from a consecutive group of patients with intramedullary spinal cord metastases had previously been reviewed by 2 neuroradiologists. Additional relevant clinical data were extracted. The influence of clinical and imaging characteristics on survival was assessed by Kaplan-Meier survival curves and log-rank tests for categoric characteristics. RESULTS: Forty-nine patients had 70 intramedullary spinal cord metastases; 10 (20%) of these patients had multiple metastases. From the date of diagnosis, median survival for all patients was 104 days (95% CI, 48-156 days). One clinical feature was associated with decreased median survival: lung or breast primary malignancy (57 days) compared with all other malignancy types (308 days; P < .001). Three MR imaging features were associated with decreased median survival: multiple intramedullary spinal cord metastases (53 versus 121 days, P = .022), greater longitudinal extent of cord T2 hyperintensity (if ≥3 segments, 111 days; if ≤2, 184 days; P = .018), and ancillary visualization of the primary tumor and/or non-CNS metastases (96 versus 316 days, P = .012). CONCLUSIONS: Spinal cord edema spanning multiple segments, the presence of multifocal intramedullary spinal cord metastases, and ancillary evidence for non-CNS metastases and/or the primary tumor are MR imaging features associated with decreased survival and should be specifically sought. Patients with either a lung or breast primary malignancy are expected to have decreased survival compared with other primary tumor types.

Immunoglobulin G4-related disease of the orbit: imaging features in 27 patients.

BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE: Immunoglobulin G4-related disease is a systemic fibroinflammatory process of unknown etiology, characterized by tissue infiltration by immunoglobulin G4 plasma cells. The purpose of this study was to retrospectively identify the spectrum of imaging features seen in immunoglobulin G4-related disease of the orbit. MATERIALS AND METHODS: This study included 27 patients with biopsy-proved immunoglobulin G4-related disease of the orbit and either a CT or MR imaging of the orbits. These CT or MR imaging examinations were evaluated for the following: extraocular muscle size, extraocular muscle tendon enlargement, lacrimal gland enlargement, infiltrative process in the orbital fat (increased attenuation on CT or abnormal signal on MR imaging), infraorbital nerve enlargement, mucosal thickening in the paranasal sinuses, and extension of orbital findings intracranially. RESULTS: Extraocular muscles were enlarged in 24 of 27 (89%) patients, 21 (88%) bilaterally. In 32 of 45 (71%) affected orbits, the lateral rectus was the most enlarged muscle. In 26 (96%) patients, the tendons of the extraocular muscles were spared. Nineteen (70%) patients had lacrimal gland enlargement. Twelve (44%) patients had an infiltrative process within the orbital fat. Infraorbital nerve enlargement was seen in 8 (30%) patients. Twenty-four (89%) patients had sinus disease. Cavernous sinus or Meckel cave extension was seen in 3 (11%) patients. CONCLUSIONS: In patients with extraocular muscle enlargement, particularly when the tendons are spared and the lateral rectus is the most enlarged, and even more so when other noted findings are present, immunoglobulin G4-related disease should be a leading differential consideration, even over more commonly known etiologies of extraocular muscle enlargement.

Intracranial imaging of uncommon diseases is more frequently reported in clinical publications than in radiology publications.

BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE: Descriptions of uncommon diseases with intracranial imaging abnormalities are often difficult to find in the radiology literature. We hypothesized that reported imaging findings of such conditions in the recent literature were more frequent in clinical compared with radiology journals. MATERIALS AND METHODS: PubMed searches from December 1, 2007 to December 1, 2012 were performed for 5 uncommon CNS diseases with intracranial imaging manifestations: 1) Susac syndrome; 2) amyloid ß-related angiitis; 3) Parry-Romberg syndrome/en coup de sabre; 4) transient lesion of the splenium of the corpus callosum; and 5) reversible cerebral vasoconstriction syndrome. Articles were classified as a case report, case series, or original research. Journals were categorized as radiology or clinical. The 1- and 5-year Impact Factors of the journals were recorded. RESULTS: Two hundred two articles were identified for the 5 diseases, including 151 (74%) case reports, 26 case series (13%), and 25 original research articles (13%); 179 (89%) were published in nonradiology journals, compared with 23 (11%) in radiology journals. There was no significant difference between the mean 1- and 5-year Impact Factors of the radiology and clinical journals. CONCLUSIONS: Recent reports of the selected uncommon diseases with intracranial manifestations are more frequent in clinical journals when compared with dedicated radiology publications. Most publications are case reports. Radiologists should review both radiology and clinical journals when reviewing imaging features of uncommon diseases affecting the brain. Lack of reporting on such disease in the radiology literature may have significant practice, educational, and research implications for the radiology community.

Tympanic plate fractures in temporal bone trauma: prevalence and associated injuries.

BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE: The prevalence of tympanic plate fractures, which are associated with an increased risk of external auditory canal stenosis following temporal bone trauma, is unknown. A review of posttraumatic high-resolution CT temporal bone examinations was performed to determine the prevalence of tympanic plate fractures and to identify any associated temporal bone injuries. MATERIALS AND METHODS: A retrospective review was performed to evaluate patients with head trauma who underwent emergent high-resolution CT examinations of the temporal bone from July 2006 to March 2012. Fractures were identified and assessed for orientation; involvement of the tympanic plate, scutum, bony labyrinth, facial nerve canal, and temporomandibular joint; and ossicular chain disruption. RESULTS: Thirty-nine patients (41.3 ± 17.2 years of age) had a total of 46 temporal bone fractures (7 bilateral). Tympanic plate fractures were identified in 27 (58.7%) of these 46 fractures. Ossicular disruption occurred in 17 (37.0%). Fractures involving the scutum occurred in 25 (54.4%). None of the 46 fractured temporal bones had a mandibular condyle dislocation or fracture. Of the 27 cases of tympanic plate fractures, 14 (51.8%) had ossicular disruption (P = .016) and 18 (66.6%) had a fracture of the scutum (P = .044). Temporomandibular joint gas was seen in 15 (33%) but was not statistically associated with tympanic plate fracture (P = .21). CONCLUSIONS: Tympanic plate fractures are commonly seen on high-resolution CT performed for evaluation of temporal bone trauma. It is important to recognize these fractures to avoid the preventable complication of external auditory canal stenosis and the potential for conductive hearing loss due to a fracture involving the scutum or ossicular chain.

Prevalence of incidental narrowing of the superior segment of the internal jugular vein in patients without multiple sclerosis.

PURPOSE: Internal jugular vein (IJV) narrowing superiorly is likely relatively frequent. IJV narrowing has been proposed as a potential pathophysiologic component for multiple sclerosis (MS). Our purpose was to investigate the prevalence of incidental superior IJV narrowing in patients imaged with neck computed tomography angiography (CTA) for reasons unrelated to IJV pathology or MS. METHODS: We retrospectively identified 164 consecutive adult patients who had undergone neck CTA in which at least one IJV superior segment was opacified (158 right, 155 left IJVs). At the narrowest point of the upper IJV, each IJV was assessed for dominance, graded (shape and narrowing), measured (diameter and area), and located (axially and craniocaudally). Associations were analyzed using Spearman rank correlations (p < 0.05 significant). Medical records were reviewed for MS. RESULTS: Among 164 patients, at least one IJV was: absent/pinpoint in 15 % (25/164), occluded/nearly occluded in 26 % (43/164). Shape, narrowing, and the three measurements all correlated with each other (all p < 0.01). Lateral location with respect to C1 transverse foramen correlated with subjectively and objectively smaller IJVs (p < 0.01). The most common craniocaudal location was at the C1 transverse process (79 % (125/158) of right and 81 % (126/155) of left IJVs). No patient had a diagnosis of MS. CONCLUSIONS: The appearance of the superior IJV is variable, with an occlusive/near-occlusive appearance present in approximately one-quarter of patients without known MS undergoing CTA. Radiologists should be aware of and cautious to report or ascribe clinical significance to this frequent anatomic variant.

Intramedullary spinal cord metastases: visibility on PET and correlation with MRI features.

BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE: Studies systematically evaluating the detection of intramedullary spinal cord metastasis with PET are lacking. Our purpose was to evaluate the visibility of intramedullary spinal cord metastasis on PET in a single institutional series and to correlate PET and MR imaging features. MATERIALS AND METHODS: Patients were included if pretreatment MR imaging identifying an intramedullary spinal cord metastasis and an [(18)F] FDG-PET examination near the time of MR imaging were available. PET examinations were retrospectively reviewed, with reviewers blinded and then unblinded to the PET report and MR imaging findings. PET intramedullary spinal cord metastasis features were compared with and correlated with previously analyzed MR imaging lesion characteristics. Original clinical PET reports were reviewed. RESULTS: The final study sample was 10 PET examinations in 10 patients with 13 intramedullary spinal cord metastases. In 7 (70%) patients, retrospective blinded review demonstrated convincing evidence of 10 (77%) intramedullary spinal cord metastases. Three MR imaging features correlated with intramedullary spinal cord metastases being visible on PET compared with those nonvisible, respectively: larger lesion enhancement size: mean size: 32.1 mm versus 6.0 mm (P = .038); larger longitudinal extent of T2 signal abnormality: mean 5.6 versus 1.0 segments (P = .0081); and larger ratio of extent of T2 signal abnormality to contrast enhancement: 3.8 versus 1.0 (P = .0069). Intramedullary spinal cord metastasis was confidently reported clinically in 2 (20%) patients, accounting for 5 (38%) intramedullary spinal cord metastases. CONCLUSIONS: Most intramedullary spinal cord metastases can be detected on PET when performed near the time of pretreatment MR imaging. However, intramedullary spinal cord metastases may not be clinically reported on PET. Larger lesions with more edema are more likely to be visible. The spinal cord should be specifically and carefully assessed on PET for evidence of intramedullary spinal cord metastases to provide timely diagnosis.

Retrospective review of rapid pediatric brain MR imaging at an academic institution including practice trends and factors affecting scan times.

BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE: In an effort to reduce radiation exposure in children requiring regular follow up for shunted hydrocephalus, our institution implemented a rapid brain MR imaging protocol. The purpose of this study was to review an academic practice experience with pediatric rapid brain MR imaging without patient sedation in the evaluation of hydrocephalus and a limited group of other conditions. MATERIALS AND METHODS: We retrospectively analyzed limited-sequence, rapid brain MR imaging scans performed in nonsedated patients younger than 14 years between April 2009 and December 2011. So-called failed examinations were determined by consensus of 2 authors as insufficiently diagnostic for evaluation of ventricular size. CT and MR imaging quarterly volumes for hydrocephalus-related indications were determined from 2005-2012. Multivariable logistic regression analysis was performed to elucidate factors potentially affecting scan durations including examination indication and patient age, sex, inpatient status, and clinical conditions. RESULTS: A total of 398 examinations were performed on 168 patients (103 boys, 65 girls; median age, 13 months). None were deemed to be failed examinations. Median scan duration was 4.43 minutes (interquartile range, 4.42 minutes-5.88 minutes; SD, 2.42 minutes). Examination indication of altered mental status was the only factor associated with increased scan duration (+1.77 minutes; P = .0021). Hydrocephalus-related imaging volumes approximately doubled in the 7 years reviewed, but rapid MR imaging introduced in 2009 is quickly replacing CT scanning for these indications, accounting for nearly 7 of every 8 examinations at the end of the study period. CONCLUSIONS: In every case of initial work-up and follow-up, rapid brain MR imaging effectively evaluated ventricular size and/or intracranial fluid and represents a viable alternative to CT scanning, irrespective of a child's age or clinical condition. For this indication and patient group, MR imaging is now the predominant imaging method in our practice.

Intramedullary spinal cord metastases: MRI and relevant clinical features from a 13-year institutional case series.

BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE: Because intramedullary spinal cord metastasis is often a difficult diagnosis to make, our purpose was to perform a systematic review of the MR imaging and relevant baseline clinical features of intramedullary spinal cord metastases in a large series. MATERIALS AND METHODS: Consecutive patients with intramedullary spinal cord metastasis with available pretreatment digital MR imaging examinations were identified. The MR imaging examination(s) for each patient was reviewed by 2 neuroradiologists for various imaging characteristics. Relevant clinical data were obtained. RESULTS: Forty-nine patients had 70 intramedullary spinal cord metastases, with 10 (20%) having multiple intramedullary spinal cord metastases; 8% (4/49) were asymptomatic. Primary tumor diagnosis was preceded by intramedullary spinal cord metastasis presentation in 20% (10/49) and by intramedullary spinal cord metastasis diagnosis in 10% (5/49); 98% (63/64) of intramedullary spinal cord metastases enhanced. Cord edema was extensive: mean, 4.5 segments, 3.6-fold larger than enhancing lesion, and ≥3 segments in 54% (37/69). Intratumoral cystic change was seen in 3% (2/70) and hemorrhage in 1% (1/70); 59% (29/49) of reference MR imaging examinations displayed other CNS or spinal (non-spinal cord) metastases, and 59% (29/49) exhibited the primary tumor/non-CNS metastases, with 88% (43/49) displaying ≥1 finding and 31% (15/49) displaying both findings. Patients with solitary intramedullary spinal cord metastasis were less likely than those with multiple intramedullary spinal cord metastases to have other CNS or spinal (non-spinal cord) metastases on the reference MR imaging (20/39 [51%] versus 9/10 [90%], respectively; P = .0263). CONCLUSIONS: Lack of known primary malignancy or spinal cord symptoms should not discourage consideration of intramedullary spinal cord metastasis. Enhancement and extensive edema for lesion size (often ≥3 segments) are typical for intramedullary spinal cord metastasis. Presence of cystic change/hemorrhage makes intramedullary spinal cord metastasis unlikely. Evidence for other CNS or spinal (non-spinal cord) metastases and the primary tumor/non-CNS metastases are common. The prevalence of other CNS or spinal (non-spinal cord) metastases in those with multiple intramedullary spinal cord metastases is especially high.

Position-related variability of CSF opening pressure measurements.

BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE: Normative data for CSF OP have previously been established with patients in the LD position. During fluoroscopically guided LP procedures, radiologists frequently obtain these OP measurements with patients prone. In this prospective study, our goal was to determine the variability of OP measurements as a function of patient positioning and to assess whether there is a relationship with patient BMI. MATERIALS AND METHODS: Consecutive patients reporting for fluoroscopically guided LP or myelography were enrolled. OP was measured with the patient in 3 positions, with the order of the technique randomized: prone with table flat, prone with table tilted until the hub of the needle was at the level of the right atrium, and LD with the needle hub at the level of the spinal canal. The BMI of each patient was calculated. The Wilcoxon signed-rank test and linear regression analysis with bivariate fit of difference were used for analysis. RESULTS: OP measurements with the patient in the prone position were significantly elevated compared with those in the LD position, with mean differences of 2.7 (P<.001) and 1.6 cm H2O, (P=.017) for prone flat and prone tilted, respectively. There was no significant difference in OP measurements for the prone flat versus prone tilted positions (P=.20). There was no correlation between BMI and observed differences (LD-flat: R2=0.00028; LD-tilt: R2=0.00038; prone-tilt: R2=0.00000020). CONCLUSIONS: Measuring OP with the patient in the prone position may result in overestimation of CSF pressure. Table tilt did not significantly impact mean prone OP. Radiologists should specify exact patient positioning when reporting OP measurements.

Rim and flame signs: postgadolinium MRI findings specific for non-CNS intramedullary spinal cord metastases.

BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE: No highly specific MR imaging features distinguishing ISCMs from primary cord masses have been described. Our purpose was to retrospectively compare peripheral enhancement features on postgadolinium MR imaging of ISCMs with primary intramedullary cord masses. MATERIALS AND METHODS: A consecutive group of patients with firmly diagnosed ISCM (45 patients with 64 ISCMs) and a comparison group with consecutive pathologically proved primary intramedullary spinal cord masses (64 patients with 64 primary spinal cord masses: ependymoma, astrocytoma, hemangioblastoma, ganglioglioma, and cavernous malformation) were included. MR images were evaluated for 2 specific signs on postgadolinium images: a "rim" sign (more intense thin rim of peripheral enhancement around an enhancing lesion) and "flame" sign (ill-defined flame-shaped region of enhancement at the superior/inferior lesion margins). The frequency of rim and/or flame signs in ISCMs and primary cord masses was compared (χ2 test). For ISCMs, the maximal dimension of the enhancing lesion was correlated with the presence of rim or flame signs (t test). RESULTS: Rim and flame signs, alone and in combination, were seen more frequently in ISCMs than in primary cord masses (P<.0001 for each). Specificity and sensitivity, respectively, for diagnosing ISCMs among spinal cord masses on a per-patient basis were the following: rim sign, 97%, 47%; flame sign, 97%, 40%; at least 1 sign, 94%, 60%; and both signs concurrently, 100%, 27%. In the ISCM group, the presence of either a rim or flame sign correlated with a larger measured maximum enhancing lesion size (P=.0065 and P=.0012, respectively). CONCLUSIONS: The rim and flame signs are common in and specific for ISCM and are rare in primary spinal cord masses.

Irrigation nose: CT findings of paranasal sinus exostoses.

We report the case of a 57-year-old male who presented with recurrent sinus infections and frequent nasal irrigation. He was found at nasal endoscopy to have multiple outgrowths along his ethmoid and maxillary sinuses. Computed tomography (CT) showed multiple bony exostoses along these sinuses. We report the imaging findings of exostoses associated with sinonasal irrigation.

When should I do dynamic CT myelography? Predicting fast spinal CSF leaks in patients with spontaneous intracranial hypotension.

BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE: Some patients with SIH have fast CSF leaks requiring dynamic CTM for localization; however, patients generally undergo conventional CTM before a dynamic study. Our aim was to determine whether findings on head MR imaging, spine MR imaging, or opening pressure measurements can predict fast spinal CSF leaks. MATERIALS AND METHODS: A retrospective review was performed on 151 consecutive patients referred for CTM to evaluate for spinal CSF leak. Head MR imaging was evaluated for diffuse dural enhancement and "brain sag," and spine MR imaging for presence of an extradural fluid collection. The opening pressure was recorded. The CTM was scored as no leak, slow leak localized on conventional CTM, or fast leak that required dynamic CTM. RESULTS: Fast CSF leaks were identified in 32 (21%), slow leaks in 36 (24%), and no leak in 83 (55%) of 151 patients on initial CTM. There was significant association between spinal extra-arachnoid fluid on MR imaging and the presence of a fast leak (sensitivity 85%, specificity 79%, P < .0001). There was not significant association between fast leak and findings on head MR imaging (P = .27) or opening pressure (P = .30). CONCLUSIONS: If all patients with spinal extra-arachnoid CSF on MR imaging had been sent directly to dynamic CTM, repeat myelography would have been avoided in most patients with fast leaks (23 of 27; 85%). However, a minority of patients with slow or no leaks would have been converted from conventional to dynamic CTM (16 of 77; 21%). Spinal MR imaging is helpful in premyelographic evaluation of SIH.

The role of MR myelography with intrathecal gadolinium in localization of spinal CSF leaks in patients with spontaneous intracranial hypotension.

BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE: Localization of spinal CSF leaks in CSF hypovolemia is critical in directing focal therapy. In this retrospective review, our aim was to determine whether GdM was helpful in confirming and localizing spinal CSF leaks in patients in whom no leak was identified on a prior CTM. MATERIALS AND METHODS: Forty-one symptomatic patients with clinical suspicion of SIH were referred for GdM after undergoing at least 1 CTM between February 2002 and August 2010. A retrospective review of the imaging and electronic medical records was performed on each patient. RESULTS: In 17 of the 41 patients (41%), GdM was performed for follow-up of a previously documented leak at CTM. In the remaining 24 patients (59%), in whom GdM was performed for a suspected CSF leak, which was not identified on CTM, GdM localized the CSF leak in 5 of 24 patients (21%). In 1 of these 5 patients, GdM detected the site of leak despite negative findings on brain MR imaging, spine MR imaging, and CTM of the entire spine. Sixteen of 17 patients with previously identified leaks underwent interval treatment, and leaks were again identified in 12 of 17 (71%). CONCLUSIONS: GdM is a useful technique in the highly select group of patients who have debilitating symptoms of SIH, a high clinical index of suspicion of spinal CSF leak, and no demonstrated leak on conventional CTM. Intrathecal injection of gadolinium contrast remains an off-label use and should be reserved for those patients who fail conventional CTM.

The utility of diffusion-weighted imaging for cholesteatoma evaluation.

DWI is a useful technique for the evaluation of cholesteatomas. It can be used to detect them when the physical examination is difficult and CT findings are equivocal, and it is especially useful in the evaluation of recurrent cholesteatoma. Initial DWI techniques only detected larger cholesteatomas, >5 mm, due to limitations of section thickness and prominent skull base artifacts. Newer techniques allow detection of smaller lesions and may be sufficient to replace second-look surgery in patients with prior cholesteatoma resection.

Pattern of T2 hypointensity associated with ring-enhancing brain lesions can help to differentiate pathology.

Ring-enhancing lesions seen on MR images can occur with a variety of etiologies. Some ring-enhancing lesions have hypointense rims peripherally on T2-weighted MR images. In this study, we examined whether T2 hypointense rims were associated with specific pathologies. A search for ring-enhancing lesions on MR images obtained from 1996 to 2004 was performed, and revealed 221 patients with MRI findings of ring enhancement. The pattern of T2 hypointensity (arc or rim) corresponding with ring enhancement was recorded. In addition, we analyzed other imaging characteristics, including signal on diffusion-weighted images, central homogeneity on T2 and multiplicity of lesions. We then reviewed clinical data on the patients to ascertain the diagnosis for each examination. The most common associated pathologies in our study were gliomas (40%), metastases (30%), abscesses (8%) and multiple sclerosis (MS; 6%). Hypointense borders on T2-weighted images were present in 67% of lesions in the form of a rim in 40% and an arc in 60%. Abscesses had the highest percentage of hypointense rims. Metastases and gliomas more commonly had arcs, and MS lesions were divided between rims and arcs. Abscesses and MS lesions were more commonly homogeneous centrally, compared to gliomas and metastases. Additionally, abscesses were more often bright on diffusion imaging than the other pathologies. As expected, abscesses and MS lesions were usually multiple, whereas metastases were typically multiple in approximately 50% of the patients; gliomas were generally solitary. Trends in T2 hypointensity may aid in distinguishing among etiologies of ring-enhancing lesions, although there is overlap between the MR appearance of these various pathologies.

Pseudotumor of infancy and congenital muscular torticollis: 170 cases.

OBJECTIVES: To review pseudotumor of infancy (POI) and congenital muscular torticollis (CMT) and to suggest an algorithm for treatment. STUDY DESIGN: Retrospective review of cases from 1962 to 1998 at a tertiary care center. METHODS: Patients included in this study were 81 boys and 89 girls who had a diagnosis of POI (n = 38) or CMT (n = 132) before 24 months of age. RESULTS: For all patients, the mean age at diagnosis was 4 months; 54.1% had the left side of the neck affected, over 90% had a head tilt, and 2.4% had feeding difficulty as a result of the disorder. Plagiocephaly was present in 39.5% of patients with POI and 63.6% of patients with CMT; a neck mass, in 63.2% and 18.2%, respectively; and facial asymmetry, in 7.9% and 15.9%, respectively. All patients had a complete physical examination; 54.1% had plain cervical radiography, 4.1%, computed tomography, and 2.9%, ultrasonography. Passive range of motion was the initial treatment recommended for 65.3% of patients. Conservative treatment failed for 16 patients; subsequently, they had surgical treatment. Follow-up data were available for 159 patients; 85.5% experienced total resolution and 14.5% experienced subtotal resolution or long-term abnormality. CONCLUSIONS: Children diagnosed with POI or CMT should be treated and observed for at least 12 months or until symptoms resolve. If symptoms persist 1 year after diagnosis despite conservative therapy, surgical treatment should be considered. The majority of children with POI or CMT experience total resolution of symptoms.

Effects of oral propafenone on defibrillation and pacing thresholds in patients receiving implantable cardioverter-defibrillators. Propafenone Defibrillation Threshold Investigators.

OBJECTIVES: The effects of propafenone, a predominantly class IC antiarrhythmic drug, on defibrillation and pacing thresholds were evaluated in patients undergoing cardioverter-defibrillator implantation. BACKGROUND: Previous studies have shown that the class IC agents encainide and flecainide may increase the energy requirements for pacing and defibrillation. Animal studies with propafenone have shown inconsistent results regarding its effect on defibrillation energy requirements. This report investigated the effects of propafenone on defibrillation and pacing thresholds in humans. METHODS: After cardioverter-defibrillator implantation, 47 patients were enrolled in a double-blind, three-way parallel, randomized trial of 450 mg/day (Group 1) or 675 mg/day (Group 2) of oral propafenone or placebo (Group 3) for 3 to 7 days. Predischarge defibrillation and pacing thresholds after treatment were compared with baseline thresholds obtained at implantation. RESULTS: There was no statistically significant difference between implantation and predischarge defibrillation thresholds in the three groups (Group 1: [mean +/- SE] 11.0 +/- 1.3 vs. 12.1 +/- 1.5 J; Group 2: 11.5 +/- 1.1 vs. 13.6 +/- 1.3 J; Group 3: 12.5 +/- 1.2 vs. 13.3 +/- 1.6 J), and no significant difference between treatment groups was found with a 0.86 power to detect a 5-J difference between groups. Paired pulse width pacing thresholds at 2.8 V were compared in 14 patients. A small increase of 0.02 ms was noted at predischarge testing in patients treated with propafenone and placebo. CONCLUSIONS: Short-term oral propafenone (450 and 675 mg/day) does not significantly affect defibrillation or pacing thresholds. Concomitant use of propafenone in patients with implantable cardioverter-defibrillators with recurrent ventricular or atrial tachyarrhythmias should not interfere with proper device function.

Production of IL2 and IL3 in syngeneic mixed lymphocyte reactions of BALB/c mice are elevated during a period of moderate dietary protein deficiency.

The mixed lymphocyte reaction (MLR) is a model of T cell responsiveness to antigenic peptides complexed with major histocompatibility (MHC) proteins on antigen presenting cells (APC). Since dietary protein deficiencies alter T cell development, syngeneic and allogeneic MLR were investigated in mice fed a low protein 4% casein (4Ca) or control 20% casein (20Ca) diet. Proliferation of splenic lymphocyte populations from BALB/c mice fed 4Ca was increased during syngeneic and allogeneic MLR compared with lymphocytes from mice fed 20Ca. Increased proliferation was accompanied by significantly higher production of IL2 and IL3 during syngeneic, but not allogeneic MLR. To determine the influence of autologous B cells on IL2 and IL3 production during MLR, lymphocyte populations of mice fed 4Ca or 20Ca were depleted of B cells. Splenic lymphocyte populations of mice fed 4Ca that were depleted of B cells did not exhibit increased IL2 or IL3 production during syngeneic or allogeneic MLR. Splenic APc of mice given 4Ca caused greater proliferation during MLR. However, APC of 4Ca mice did not cause greater IL2 or IL3 production. Similarly neither IgM-B cells nor macrophage from mice fed 4Ca induced elevated IL2 or IL3 production during syngeneic or allogeneic MLR. A dichotomy appeared in that 4Ca-APC were able to induce higher T cell proliferation but not cytokine production compared with 20Ca-APC. The enhancement of T cell responsiveness to Class II MHC determinants on APC during moderate protein deficiency appears to require both T and B cells from mice fed the deficient diet.